Latest Version Of The Most Misunderstood Basketball Rules ...

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

Still don't see it as one of the commonly/most misunderstood rules.

Don't make me start a poll. I don't make idle threats.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Without the expressed written consent of BillyMac?

My legal people will be in touch with your legal people tomorrow morning. I gave my people the day off today in honor of Memorial Day.

And don't try to delete your post. I took a screen shot of it, and it's safely locked up, hermetically sealed, in a #2 mayonnaise jar, on Funk and Wagnall's porch.

Yes without written consent. Never sold it or used it for profit.

Peace

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Yes without written consent.

These words will come back to haunt you.

And all those Forum members who have logged on today, you can expect a subpoena very soon, and we'll find you eventually. An ex-girlfriend of my second cousin's father-in-law knows Eric Holder's dry cleaner's second wife.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

These words will come back to haunt you.

And all those Forum members who have logged on today, you can expect a subpoena very soon, and we'll find you eventually. An ex-girlfriend of my second cousin's father-in-law knows Eric Holder's dry cleaner's second wife.

Well I think we should take a poll to see how concerned I am.

Peace

[Adam]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Well I think we should take a poll to see how concerned I am.

Peace

No need.

[Altor]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

No way. Please don't tell me that a basketball player has taken over the initials of one of our most active presidents,

You prefer the nickname that refers to a monarch that authorized the translation of the Bible into English?

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Altor

You prefer the nickname that refers to a monarch that authorized the translation of the Bible into English?

I've never heard LeBron James referred to as King James the First.

I'm an American, and a Catholic, so I actually prefer the New American Bible over the King James I Version.

[potato]

i asked again here since the thread mentioned about the rule since i couldn't get an answer as i posted the illustration late. don't want to keep bumping the thread.

can you kind soul tell me if it's a travel on both cases?

Originally Posted by Adam

potato, I don't know how you're going to get more thorough answers than you got in your original thread.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by potato

i asked again here since the thread mentioned about the rule since i couldn't get an answer as i posted the illustration late. don't want to keep bumping the thread.

can you kind soul tell me if it's a travel on both cases?

You're not understanding. It's a judgment call based on when the official determined that the dribble ended. And the NBA has different rules regarding what a player can do with his feet after he gathers the ball. You are not going to get a cut-n-dry, black-n-white answer to your hypotheticals.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by potato

i asked again here since the thread mentioned about the rule since i couldn't get an answer as i posted the illustration late. don't want to keep bumping the thread.

can you kind soul tell me if it's a travel on both cases?

In both cases you asked "when did the player end his dribble and establish his pivot foot? Is #x a travel?"

We can't answer the second until you answer the first -- and we can't tell the answer to the first from your pictures.

[potato]

this is the reason i posted the scenario since it's not as clear cut as normal end dribble.

i believe FIBA & NBA both mention the rule that there is no limit on how many steps taken per dribble and dribble ends when the ball "REST" on hand.

i'm not an official so by looking at the 2 clauses i see it as the ball comes to rest only when the player holds the ball with both hands in this case i.e step no.2 (where he established pivot foot) even though he took a step while ball on hand before holding it, but if that is the case won't it be possible to take few more steps if he wasn't being called for palming?

i understand there is a black & white written rule and then there is this "rule of thumb" standard practice for officials. and i believe more than 2 steps after a dribble is considered a travel as a rule of thumb as someone posted before?

i also understand the rule book is not perfect and doesn't cover many grey areas especially when it comes down to modern play style.

from rule of thumb i would say the player established pivot while he gathers in the step no.1 (which makes 360spin move illegal) but from the written book i say he established pivot only when he held the ball (but this will allow exploits for multiple steps before holding the ball), so i just want to know how you officials would call the 2 scenarios. that is all.

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

You're not understanding. It's a judgment call based on when the official determined that the dribble ended. And the NBA has different rules regarding what a player can do with his feet after he gathers the ball. You are not going to get a cut-n-dry, black-n-white answer to your hypotheticals.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by potato

this is the reason i posted the scenario since it's not as clear cut as normal end dribble.

i believe FIBA & NBA both mention the rule that there is no limit on how many steps taken per dribble and dribble ends when the ball "REST" on hand.

i'm not an official so by looking at the 2 clauses i see it as the ball comes to rest only when the player holds the ball with both hands in this case i.e step no.2 (where he established pivot foot) even though he took a step while ball on hand before holding it, but if that is the case won't it be possible to take few more steps if he wasn't being called for palming?

i understand there is a black & white written rule and then there is this "rule of thumb" standard practice for officials. and i believe more than 2 steps after a dribble is considered a travel as a rule of thumb as someone posted before?

i also understand the rule book is not perfect and doesn't cover many grey areas especially when it comes down to modern play style.

from rule of thumb i would say the player established pivot while he gathers in the step no.1 (which makes 360spin move illegal) but from the written book i say he established pivot only when he held the ball (but this will allow exploits for multiple steps before holding the ball), so i just want to know how you officials would call the 2 scenarios. that is all.

I have no idea how to interpret your pictures.

Two hands is not required to consider the dribble ended. Players end the dribble with one hand all the time. Once we consider the player to be holding the ball, the dribble is ended and the pivot foot will be determined accordingly.

It would typically be at the same point where we would consider another dribble to be an illegal dribble, which could also often be called a "carry" (not "palming.")

It's a judgment call sometimes determining when the dribble is ended.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Adam

Two hands is not required to consider the dribble ended. Players end the dribble with one hand all the time. Once we consider the player to be holding the ball, the dribble is ended and the pivot foot will be determined accordingly.

The dribble ends when:
a. The dribbler catches or causes the ball to come to rest in one or both
hands.
b. The dribbler palms/carries the ball by allowing it to come to rest in one or
both hands.
c. The dribbler simultaneously touches the ball with both hands.
d. The ball touches or is touched by an opponent and causes the dribbler to
lose control.
e. The ball becomes dead.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Adam

... which could also often be called a "carry" (not "palming").

Why not? The dribble ends when the dribbler palms/carries the ball by allowing it to come to rest in one or both hands.

There's even a NFHS palming signal:

[potato]

I know my pictures are not as great as a video, but i also described the scenario beside the picture.

I know when you determine the ball has rested, that is why i mentioned the player was not palming or holding the ball in the 1st step. So would it be considered that he only ended the dribble on the 2nd step? If that is the case we can see the player has taken an abnormal 3 steps after the last dribble bounce.

Again if it were a clear cut 90's basketball this kind of question would hardly exist but since we are using pretty much the same rules as the 90's while new play style has been invented i though i'd ask.

Thus i'd like to hear how non-NBA officials see it.

Originally Posted by Adam

I have no idea how to interpret your pictures.

Two hands is not required to consider the dribble ended. Players end the dribble with one hand all the time. Once we consider the player to be holding the ball, the dribble is ended and the pivot foot will be determined accordingly.

It would typically be at the same point where we would consider another dribble to be an illegal dribble, which could also often be called a "carry" (not "palming.")

It's a judgment call sometimes determining when the dribble is ended.