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Until this thread, I thought it WAS universally done the right way. I don't know anyone who uses post-foul actions to determine what kind of foul it was.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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I know when I played basketball I quite often passed the ball after jumping up intending to shoot. That decision by the player can be a split-second thing. So if have a player elevate, get fouled, then following my whistle pass the ball to a teammage under the basket I'm gonna judge that he was intending to pass the ball. It's not contrary to any rule, it's a judgment. And where I work and who I work for, it is what is expected.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR Last edited by Raymond; Tue Jan 29, 2013 at 03:21pm. |
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And we are judging what the player intending to do. We don't "know" what he intended to do.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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Because it clearly wasn't a shot, was it?
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Which example are we talking about now? This is all I'm saying. It can go either way. I have understood you and Rut to say that the pass after the fact eliminates the possibility of two shots. There is no basis for this.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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Have you never seen a player drive to the basket and go through a normal shooting motion only to dish it off at the last second? You thought he would shoot, didn't you? But he didn't. So how can you say there is no basis for it?
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It's really never been much of a debate where I've worked or for the different supervisors for whom I've worked. I've actually been complimented a couple times by observers for bringing my partners this information. And I've seen officials get criticized for not knowing that the player passed the balled off when they were awarded 2 shots. And back to what started the thread, it was about a partner bringing information. I'm going to continue to bring that information. If my partner decides to stay with a shooting foul that's his perogative. It will not be something I bring up in the locker room afterward b/c it will be obvious by his decsion what his judgment is.
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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I'm saying there is no basis for not giving a player two shots solely because he passed the ball rather than continue with his original motion which may now be impossible because of contact.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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Who said it was impossible? What example was given where it was impossible to get the shot off?
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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A1 goes up to shoot and is grabbed by B1. < Whistle> Just prior to the release, B2 steps out to contest the shot. Because of the contact, A1 realizes he will not get the shot over B2, so he dishes off instead. Ruling: 2 shots
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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What about this. Last second shot, player rises to shoot, fouled hard enough to not be able to shoot. Whistle. Ball never leaves his hand. Someone said earlier that to get two shots the ball needs to leave the hands. |
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A-hole formerly known as BNR |
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But when someone goes up with what appears to me (and/or my partners) to be a shot, and is then fouled in a way that takes that option away from him, it is completely unfair and inappropriate to penalize the fouled player for trying to salvage the play - especially considering that he doesn't know for a fact if we're going to call the foul or not. All he knows is he suddenly can't shoot and has to do something to avoid a violation - so he passes. Wanting to hold that against the player is wrong. Insisting that the player guess whether we're going to call the foul or not is wrong. The seeming desire to punish the offended here is beyond wrong.
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I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'” West Houston Mike |
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