Originally Posted by just another ref (Post 849462)

Agreed. In this case the initial bat does not define a dribble until it strikes the floor and subsequently remains in control of the player making the steal.

I see this as totally different than the player who has ended a dribble, then pushes the ball toward the floor, intending to start another, even if it strikes something else instead.

Originally Posted by Lotto (Post 849581)

We have a player establishing player and team control with a dribble with one foot in the FC, one foot in the air, and the ball in the BC (first bounce on the division line). So I see this as team control being established with the ball not having FC status, due (in the spirit of if not in the fact of) the three points rule.

Originally Posted by bainsey (Post 849374)

A-1 makes a bad cross-court pass that's easily stolen by B-2, who steals it with one hand and immediately starts a dribble.

Here's the crux: When B-2 starts this her dribble, she has a foot in the air, one in the FC (about 10 inches from the division line), and her dribble hits the division line. When did status begin, when she immediately touched the ball (resulting in a violation), or when the dribble is established (no violation)?

Originally Posted by Rob1968 (Post 849626)

When A-1 made the errant cross-court pass, which was intercepted by a bat by B-2, was A-1 in her frontcourt - (B's backcourt) or was she in A's backcourt - (B's frontcourt) ?

It seems that the originating location of the ball could be significant, regarding a ruling of whether the interception by B-2 constituted a backcourt violation.

Originally Posted by Rob1968 (Post 849626)

When A-1 made the errant cross-court pass, which was intercepted by a bat by B-2, was A-1 in her frontcourt - (B's backcourt) or was she in A's backcourt - (B's frontcourt) ?

It seems that the originating location of the ball could be significant, regarding a ruling of whether the interception by B-2 constituted a backcourt violation.