Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by cmathews
the point is the player and or ball have to be entirely in the Front court before a front court violation occurs....entirely meaning nothing of the person or ball is in the back court..
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I'm not trying to pick on you, Chris, but that statement is simply not true, even assuming that you meant to write "backcourt" violation. There does not need to be player control in the frontcourt in order for a backcourt violation to occur.
A1 is in the backcourt. A1 throws a pass into the frontcourt. Trying to be cool, he puts a ton of backspin on it. It hits in the frontcourt and bounces back to him, where he is the first person to touch it. This is a violation, even tho A1 never made it out of the backcourt.
If your point is that the player and the ball must both be in the frontcourt before a backcourt violation can occur (which is sure what the above quote sounds like), then the point is not correct.
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In probability theory, this is a 1 in a million play.
However, cmathews, Chuck is the one who is entirely correct.
Tue Jun 10, 2003, 02:22am
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