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4.19.11 doesn't say foul or signal. It says if they both foul, here is what you do. Yet everybody, including me, says call one foul. Which means we are ignoring this case play totally. That is perfectly all right, but the other case matters more because?
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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The definition of a foul is not the question. It is a given in the case play that they both foul, but everybody says call one.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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No, it if is not called, it is not a foul. If they call only one, they have decided the other is not a foul.
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Owner/Developer of RefTown.com Commissioner, Portland Basketball Officials Association |
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Agreed. And if you can ignore the foul on one play, you can certainly ignore it on the other, when it is in fact impossible that the two (block/charge) occurred at the same time, whether a signal was made or not, and nothing is written anywhere which says differently.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove Last edited by just another ref; Sat Jan 07, 2012 at 11:05am. |
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Sure there is...neither official's judgment supersedes the other. Once a signal is made, the official has declared their judgment. For either to change would be equivalent to one's call overruling the other....which, by rule, is not allowed. The difference is that one case has both infractions against one team and that team will get penalized no matter what what the other completely flips who gets penalized depending on which official backs down (if you were to come out with one) and it would be a completely arbitrary/random decision.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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