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Old Fri Nov 18, 2011, 08:41am
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Intentional Foul?

I'm pretty sure this was discussed previously but can't find the thread. Casebook situation 10.3.10C says:

Team A scores near the end of the fourth quarter and is trailing by one point. B1 has the ball and is moving along the end line to make the throw-in. A2 steps out of bounds and fouls B1. Is the foul personal or technical? RULING: This is an intentional personal foul. The time remaining to be played or whether Team A had been previously warned for a delay-of-game situation is not a factor. If the team had not been warned, the foul constitutes the warning.

My question is this: If Team A had been given a DOG warning already wouldn't the reaching through the plane cause a technical whether or not contact followed (i.e., the reaching through causing the technical came first followed by contact, regardless of the amount of time between the two actions)?

I understand the rule is what it is and will call it that way. This just struck me as curious and was wondering if I'm completely off base in my question.
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Old Fri Nov 18, 2011, 08:54am
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If it's all one act, then penalize that act, even if the laws of physics say the plane had to be broken before the contact was made.

If there's a reach (or step) across and then a second act to foul, get the first act.
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Old Fri Nov 18, 2011, 01:09pm
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Thanks Bob, that helps.
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