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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Oct 31, 2011, 08:27pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by The_Rookie View Post
Loose ball on the floor..A1 and B3 are diving for the ball. If A1 clearly gets to the ball first and B3 dives into A1..do we have a foul? Or no foul since 2 players going for loose ball?

Looking for some guidelines on this type of call...Thanks!
Why do folks have the presumption that a loose ball changes tenets of a foul?
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Oct 31, 2011, 08:34pm
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Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Why do folks have the presumption that a loose ball changes tenets of a foul?
"Because the ball was loose! He/She was just trying to get the ball!"

[/coach speak]
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Old Mon Oct 31, 2011, 09:55pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Why do folks have the presumption that a loose ball changes tenets of a foul?
The same reason they think blocking out is a license to push an opponent as far as possible.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Tue Nov 01, 2011, 12:04pm
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In my opinion it would be a foul.
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