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Old Wed Aug 17, 2011, 09:44am
We don't rent pigs
 
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My hang up is that the discussion went from "the contact was/wasn't sufficient to affect the play and justify a foul call" to "cuz Dad said so."

Somebody important once posted the interpretation that when B1 tips the ball into the backcourt and A1 catches it without allowing it to first hit the floor that it is a violation.

A lot of us still haven't accepted that one.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Wed Aug 17, 2011, 09:58am
Courageous When Prudent
 
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Location: Hampton Roads, VA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
My hang up is that the discussion went from "the contact was/wasn't sufficient to affect the play and justify a foul call" to "cuz Dad said so."

Somebody important once posted the interpretation that when B1 tips the ball into the backcourt and A1 catches it without allowing it to first hit the floor that it is a violation.

A lot of us still haven't accepted that one.
That's a rules debate concerning the misapplication and misinterpretation of said rule.

This discussion is about judgement. You would think you'd be able to distinguish between the two.
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Last edited by Raymond; Wed Aug 17, 2011 at 10:44am.
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Old Wed Aug 17, 2011, 11:59am
APG APG is offline
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Join Date: Apr 2007
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
My hang up is that the discussion went from "the contact was/wasn't sufficient to affect the play and justify a foul call" to "cuz Dad said so."

Somebody important once posted the interpretation that when B1 tips the ball into the backcourt and A1 catches it without allowing it to first hit the floor that it is a violation.

A lot of us still haven't accepted that one.
Well if my dad was in charge of grading my call percentages, and said something is or isn't a foul, then his word is final...I mean you don't have to agree but you'll be getting your calls graded as incorrect.

For some reason, I feel like we're talking about a blarge...something that everyone seems to have no real problem with except you.
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Old Wed Aug 17, 2011, 12:53pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
My hang up is that the discussion went from "the contact was/wasn't sufficient to affect the play and justify a foul call" to "cuz Dad said so."

Somebody important once posted the interpretation that when B1 tips the ball into the backcourt and A1 catches it without allowing it to first hit the floor that it is a violation.

A lot of us still haven't accepted that one.
And that somebody doesn't sign any of our checks; metaphorically or otherwise.
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