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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jun 15, 2011, 02:19pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
Where in the world do you get that inference?
Your words...

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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
The "unfair advantage" is punished by two shots and the ball, per the rule. It's why you don't just go with a common foul.
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Old Wed Jun 15, 2011, 02:44pm
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Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
Your words...
Why would you consider calling a foul away from the play like this anything but an intentional/flagrant foul? An opponent trying to commit a foul away form the play like this is a textbook example of a foul that "neutralizes an opponent's obvious advantageous position," and it's the only way I'd put air in the whistle.
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Old Wed Jun 15, 2011, 02:46pm
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Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer View Post
Why would you consider calling a foul away from the play like this anything but an intentional/flagrant foul?
Where'd you get the idea that I would?
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Old Wed Jun 15, 2011, 02:52pm
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Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
Where'd you get the idea that I would?
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Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
So what infer from you is, on a common foul, you can hold the whistle, but on an intentional foul, it's immediate. If that's what you're saying, what rule citations are there, or is this more of a gut feeling?
An inference from your inference...curious why you'd ask the difference between a common and intentional foul. In the scenario presented, if there's a call to be made, the only one to be made is an intentional or flagrant foul. A common foul should not enter the equation.
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Old Wed Jun 15, 2011, 02:55pm
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Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer View Post
In the scenario presented, if there's a call to be made, the only one to be made is an intentional or flagrant foul. A common foul should not enter the equation.
I agree. But, I was specifically talking about whether to hold the whistle, and when one would hold it.
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