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Old Mon Mar 21, 2011, 05:48am
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Just saw the clip on my SportsCentre.

I timed the play as did the sports report. They had 3.9s and I have 4.02s. That's not even close to being a violation.

Horrible call.
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Old Mon Mar 21, 2011, 10:53pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by fiasco View Post
So I turned the TV off not long after the Arizona game, but I have a friend who was telling me later that John Adams came back on the show and referenced the "4-second" timeout rule in defending the referee, esssentially saying the rule IS in the book. Did anyone else see this or was my buddy mistaken??
I too would like to know whats JA said about this...the fan boards are all over this one...not that they're ever right but its really got their attention.

Was this EVER a rule and if so when did it change?
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Old Mon Mar 21, 2011, 11:23pm
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I am surprised nobody has questioned the travel that might have happened in the play following the 5-second violation? #23 caught the ball with right foot on ground making it the pivot and then stepped with left foot hitting ground picking up right foot (pivot) and putting it back to the floor and jumping off two feet.

Travel?
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Old Tue Mar 22, 2011, 09:43am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by eyezen View Post
I too would like to know whats JA said about this...the fan boards are all over this one...not that they're ever right but its really got their attention.

Was this EVER a rule and if so when did it change?
Before the gap, there was the 80% rule. Once a count reached 80% of the total for a violation, a timeout could not be granted. 8 seconds of the 10 second count. 4 seconds of any 5 second count. Not sure when that changed.
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