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Old Fri Dec 31, 2010, 06:58pm
In Memoriam
 
Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark Padgett View Post
How is B1 violating?
Upon further consideration, B1 isn't violating. A1 violated as soon as the ball was touched. Camron gave the logical reason why there you can't have a simultaneous held ball with A1's touch. You can only have simultaneous touching by A1 & B1.

I went back and deleted my wrong post.
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