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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 01, 2010, 05:41pm
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No I meant intentionally

Quote:
Originally Posted by Indianaref View Post
You mean unintentionally, like in fumble.
There is no rule support that I know of that says a player can't INTENTIONALLY lose control of the ball while in the air. The case play that I sited above says its only a violation if the ball touches the floor and the player is the first too touch it. Again the case play isn't a 100% similar to the OP but it is close enough in my mind to give us some guidance. If the player intentionally loses control but regains it before he and the ball touches the floor I still have nothing.
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Old Wed Dec 01, 2010, 05:45pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
There is no rule support that I know of that says a player can't INTENTIONALLY lose control of the ball while in the air. The case play that I sited above says its only a violation if the ball touches the floor and the player is the first too touch it. Again the case play isn't a 100% similar to the OP but it is close enough in my mind to give us some guidance. If the player intentionally loses control but regains it before he and the ball touches the floor I still have nothing.
I see your point now I think. Your saying, in my words: A1 jumps into the air but intentionally for whatever reason loses the ball or lets go of the ball. He then recovers it and lands. Is this correct?
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Old Wed Dec 01, 2010, 05:46pm
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Yes

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Originally Posted by CDurham View Post
I see your point now I think. Your saying, in my words: A1 jumps into the air but intentionally for whatever reason loses the ball or lets go of the ball. He then recovers it and lands. Is this correct?
You are correct.
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Old Wed Dec 01, 2010, 05:47pm
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1. A1 throws a lob pass towards A2.
2. A2 doesn't see the pass and cuts towards the basket.
3. A1 runs to retrieve pass before it hits the floor.

Call?
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Old Wed Dec 01, 2010, 05:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
You are correct.
But a fumble is unintentionally. Therefore how can he be able to land and it be legal if the so called "fumble action" was intentional?
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