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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 26, 2010, 09:27am
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Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
In some people's opinion.
Apparently you are not in this group? Explain how the interp can be justified.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 26, 2010, 09:30am
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Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Apparently you are not in this group? Explain how the interp can be justified.
I have multiple times. Let's just say I'm not in the camp that says 2 things cannot occur simultaneously.
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Old Fri Mar 26, 2010, 09:40am
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Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
I have multiple times. Let's just say I'm not in the camp that says 2 things cannot occur simultaneously.
Two things definitely can occur simultaneously, but last to touch in frontcourt/first to touch in backcourt cannot.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 26, 2010, 09:46am
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Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Two things definitely can occur simultaneously, but last to touch in frontcourt/first to touch in backcourt cannot.
That's the part I say is up to debate.

And debating now would be a waste of keystrokes since I doubt either one of us will say anything that hasn't already been proffered.
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Old Fri Mar 26, 2010, 09:47am
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Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
And debating now would be a waste of keystrokes since I doubt either one of us will say anything that hasn't already been proffered.
Amen, Brother Newz. Amen.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 26, 2010, 10:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Two things definitely can occur simultaneously, but last to touch in frontcourt/first to touch in backcourt cannot.
That's not even what the rule says. The rule says "last to touch before the ball goes into the backcourt" and "first to touch after it goes into the backcourt."

We have three events, (A, B, C).
If A happens before B, and C happens after B, it is impossible for A and C to happen simultaneously.
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Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 12:12am
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That's not even what the rule says. The rule says "last to touch before the ball goes into the backcourt" and "first to touch after it goes into the backcourt."

We have three events, (A, B, C).
If A happens before B, and C happens after B, it is impossible for A and C to happen simultaneously.
Which makes the interp even more bogus.
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Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 12:14am
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Which makes the interp even more bogus.
Agreed; that impossibility is the only reason I ignore the interp.
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Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 03:30am
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Oh, my head.
One should not read threads about backcourt violations while enjoying a refreshing Pabst Blue Ribbon. One can only take the death of so many brain cells at a time.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 06:39am
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Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
Which makes the interp even more bogus.
Fer sure......

It's a case play with absolutely no rules backing(as discussed ad infinitum, ad nauseum).
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 09:22am
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Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee View Post

It's a case play with absolutely no rules backing......
Like a blarge.
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  #12 (permalink)  
Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 01:53pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
That's not even what the rule says. The rule says "last to touch before the ball goes into the backcourt" and "first to touch after it goes into the backcourt."

We have three events, (A, B, C).
If A happens before B, and C happens after B, it is impossible for A and C to happen simultaneously.
Define "goes into the backcourt".
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old Sat Mar 27, 2010, 08:00pm
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Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Define "goes into the backcourt".
Ball location is defined. That can't quite be it.
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Old Sun Mar 28, 2010, 05:50pm
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Originally Posted by BadNewsRef View Post
Define "goes into the backcourt".
I think it's safe to define it concurrently with "gains backcourt status."
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Old Mon Mar 29, 2010, 05:59am
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Concurrently
One of my favorite words. It always bring a smile to my face when I hear it from a judge who is sentencing me.
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