Free throws

[jdw3018]

Originally Posted by DLH17

The shooter did retrieve the ball....but, he didn't physically have to go into the lane to do it. He merely lost the handle, leaned forward a bit w/o stepping beyond the ft line and picked up the ball. According to the rule, it sounds as if he was in violation.

What in the rule indicates he was in violation?

[DLH17]

Originally Posted by jdw3018

What in the rule indicates he was in violation?

After re-reading the rule, it appears he was not in violation because the ball wasn't allowed to hit his foot after fumbling the ball.

Good learning experience. Helps to discuss.

[grunewar]

Originally Posted by DLH17

Good learning experience. Helps to discuss.

And that's why many of us are here.

I learn something new every day.

[jdw3018]

Originally Posted by DLH17

After re-reading the rule, it appears he was not in violation because the ball wasn't allowed to hit his foot after fumbling the ball.

Good learning experience. Helps to discuss.

Actually, it has nothing to do with it hitting his foot. It has to do with whether the free thrower would have to leave the free throw semi-circle to retrieve the ball. If he can't retrieve the ball, it is a violation.

[DLH17]

Originally Posted by jdw3018

Actually, it has nothing to do with it hitting his foot. It has to do with whether the free thrower would have to leave the free throw semi-circle to retrieve the ball. If he can't retrieve the ball, it is a violation.

I don't read anything in the rule posted that indicates the "retrieving the ball" is the cause of the violation. It may well be, however, it is not stated.

"Allowing the ball to deflect of his/her foot into the lane" is the verbiage.

I suppose common sense would help infer the shooter would have to step over the FT line in order to retrieve, and thus, commit a violation. But, it's not explicitly stated in 9.1.1. as posted.

[Scratch85]

Originally Posted by DLH17

I don't read anything in the rule posted that indicates the "retrieving the ball" is the cause of the violation. It may well be, however, it is not stated.

"Allowing the ball to deflect of his/her foot into the lane" is the verbiage.

I suppose common sense would help infer the shooter would have to step over the FT line in order to retrieve, and thus, commit a violation. But, it's not explicitly stated in 9.1.1. as posted.

IMO, what is explicitly stated is that a violation in 9-1-3(a) or (e) has occurred.

edited: Hitting the foot is not the violation.

[jdw3018]

Originally Posted by DLH17

I don't read anything in the rule posted that indicates the "retrieving the ball" is the cause of the violation. It may well be, however, it is not stated.

"Allowing the ball to deflect of his/her foot into the lane" is the verbiage.

I suppose common sense would help infer the shooter would have to step over the FT line in order to retrieve, and thus, commit a violation. But, it's not explicitly stated in 9.1.1. as posted.

The key is to not just read the case play, but rather to read both the case play and the rule to which it references, allowing you to read the case play in the context of the rule.

There is no rule indicating that the ball hitting any part of the body is illegal.

[DLH17]

Thanks for the convo. Good stuff.

[Rich]

Originally Posted by jdw3018

actually, it has nothing to do with it hitting his foot. It has to do with whether the free thrower would have to leave the free throw semi-circle to retrieve the ball. If he can't retrieve the ball, it is a violation.

+1

[Adam]

Originally Posted by richmsn

+1

+1