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We've discussed this play before. The NCAA has a play ruling which directs the official to stop play and re-administer the throw-in, the NFHS does not.
Therefore, the thrower fumbling the ball away from the designated-spot has to be treated as failing to throw the ball directly into the court and is a throw-in violation. Quote:
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If the ball has left the designated-throw-in spot, then yes. |
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NCAA and NFHS have different rulings for the same play. *New Case Play. Page 70, 9.2.1 Situation B, example b. After receiving the ball from the official, fumbles the ball and leaves the designated spot to retreive the fumble. Ruling:A throw-in violation shall be called on A1 for leaving the designated spot. So, YES! NFHS does have a case ruling the play. Their interp is the violation for leaving the spot. In my play, the ball caroms away from A1. The play happens so fast that B1 touches the ball on the OOB side of the boundary line before A1 leave the designated spot. A1 never throws/passes the ball. The only rule infraction I can see is that an opponent of the thrower reaches over the boundary line before the ball has been released on a throw-in pass and has touched the ball. ![]() Last edited by Zoochy; Tue Nov 10, 2009 at 11:19am. |
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And I would argue that it's not failing to throw the ball directly onto the court, but it's leaving the designated spot.
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That's what I meant, but unfortunately not what I wrote.
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Snaqs, A1 attempts an inbounds pass and it hits OB before it enters inbounds and you have nothing? That's what I was getting at and may not have worded it clearly |
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I was off on another tangent in a post. Regarding OP situation, can you liken this to a free throw where A1 fumbles and ball rolls across the free throw line( after securing it from official).............and you have a violation Wouldn't this be the same as OP, where ball is out of designated area? Just more food for thought. |
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This is my first reply to a post here but I thought I would chime in :-) I think this is pretty simple. Just administer according to the rules. If the ball gets away from the thrower, just keep counting. If you hit five, you have a 5-second violation (I might be tempted to count just a BIT faster though LOL). If you DON'T hit five and the thrower leaves his spot, you have a throw-in violation. So far this is totally easy. And if you DON'T hit five and you DON'T have the thrower-in walk out of the spot, and B reaches through the plane, you have a warning (or T if there has already been a warning).
I mean why would I penalize the A player for KNOWING the rules and not doing the wrong thing. The ball is out of their control but until the time ticks by, there is no violation. Why stop play and "antipate" the call? I can't think of any other time or situation where we are instructed to do this. In fact, the exact opposite of this is true in delayed free-throw violations. If the defender violates, we DON'T stop play and call the violation, instead we let the shooter attempt their shot and only if they miss do we call the defender for violating. I can't think of a SINGLE situation where we are instructed to PREEMPTIVELY anticipate what MIGHT happen and make a call based on that. As another example of how we never do this anyplace else, say the ball gets loose in the backcourt near the end of a ten-second count and bounds back towards the end line and no one makes a move for it (I know that is far-fetched but for the moment assume it happens). Do you automatically stop play and call the violation because you THINK you will get to ten-seconds? No you wait until you reach 10 seconds (or at least I do). So while I agree with several other commenters that in this case, there is no real likelihood of anything else happening, in fact there is: a. As in this case, the defender can do something that "beats" the violation, or b. The thrower-in can call a timeout. Since either is a possible action that can happen, I think you just have to let things play out and call the play as it happens. No need to "over-officiate" in this case at all.
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