What exactly does this mean?

Welpe · #1 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 29, 2009, 07:24pm

Wouldn't this be a violation as soon as A2 caught the ball, making the ball dead and A2's contact nothing (unless deemed to be the level of a technical foul)?

BillyMac · #2 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 29, 2009, 08:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Welpe

Wouldn't this be a violation as soon as A2 caught the ball, making the ball dead and A2's contact nothing (unless deemed to be the level of a technical foul)?

I think that Back In The Saddle was referring to nonjumpers.

Juulie Downs · #3 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 29, 2009, 11:31pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BillyMac

I think that Back In The Saddle was referring to nonjumpers.

Right. It means that if one of the jumpers catches the ball before the jump ball is ended, there's no Player Control and thus no Team Control. That's what it means.

FrankHtown · #4 (**permalink**) Fri Oct 30, 2009, 01:43pm

Because if the jumper A1 caught the ball and it was considered player control, you'd have to give B the ball for the violation, and then give B the arrow, because A had initial possession.

Zoochy · #5 (**permalink**) Sat Oct 31, 2009, 11:03am

Quote:

Originally Posted by FrankHtown

Because if the jumper A1 caught the ball and it was considered player control, you'd have to give B the ball for the violation, and then give B the arrow, because A had initial possession.

Frank, do I read your statement correctly? This ruling changed a few years ago. There is no longer a double penality if a "Jumper" catches the ball.
If A1 catches the ball before the 'Jump Ball' requirements end, then Team B would get the ball Out of Bounds and Team A would get the AP arrow.

mikeacosta · #6 (**permalink**) Sat Oct 31, 2009, 02:20pm

I agree with Zoochy!

Adam · #7 (**permalink**) Sat Oct 31, 2009, 02:51pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Zoochy

Frank, do I read your statement correctly? This ruling changed a few years ago. There is no longer a double penality if a "Jumper" catches the ball.
If A1 catches the ball before the 'Jump Ball' requirements end, then Team B would get the ball Out of Bounds and Team A would get the AP arrow.

That was Frank's point. If there was player/team control on that intial catch, the ruling Frank gives would be correct. Since there is no player control there, it's different.

Welpe · #8 (**permalink**) Sat Oct 31, 2009, 06:04pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by FrankHtown

Because if the jumper A1 caught the ball and it was considered player control, you'd have to give B the ball for the violation, and then give B the arrow, because A had initial possession.

Thanks, Frank. I was scratching my head as to why this would be in the book but that makes perfect sense.