Louisville/Siena Backcourt violation

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Jay R

A Louisville FG attempt rebounded off the rim and was going towards out of bounds. A Louisville player passed the ball with one hand into his backcourt. The official called a backcourt violation.

Originally Posted by JRutledge

That sounds like control to me. If a player throws the ball somewhere, they had to have control to do it.

Let's change the original post to: "A Louisville player tapped, or tipped, the ball into his backcourt."

Same call?

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Let's change the original post to: "A Louisville player tapped, or tipped, the ball into his backcourt."

Same call?

Maybe not, but I did not see the call. But if there was no doubt that he was saving the ball and took the ball and purposely threw the ball to someone, but it reached the BC, that is a violation in my book. I do not care if it was with one hand or not.

Peace

[just another ref]

I saw the play. Even though only one hand was used, I would say there was control and the ball was thrown rather than batted or tapped. Looked like a good call to me, just kind of a slow whistle.

[Jay R]

Originally Posted by just another ref

I saw the play. Even though only one hand was used, I would say there was control and the ball was thrown rather than batted or tapped. Looked like a good call to me, just kind of a slow whistle.

So let's say you're refereeing a high school and the same situation applies. As the player is throwing the ball, he asks for a timeout. So you're going to award him the TO because he has control. In my mind, he doesn't have control for a timeout and thus this should not be a backcourt violation. I would like to hear other views on this play as it is common enough.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by Jay R

So let's say you're refereeing a high school and the same situation applies. As the player is throwing the ball, he asks for a timeout. So you're going to award him the TO because he has control. In my mind, he doesn't have control for a timeout and thus this should not be a backcourt violation. I would like to hear other views on this play as it is common enough.

The only reason this is seen as control, is because he threw the ball to the backcourt. I do not know how someone on the end line only taps the ball and the ball projects to the backcourt without someone throwing it there. As it relates to a timeout, I would not be quick to grant a timeout of a ball that is about to be thrown somewhere.

Is this not why we all are judged based on our judgment and understanding of the game. Someone is going to judge whether you are right or not. When this happen in my game, the coaches did not like it. But our assignor was at the game and if he felt we were wrong, he could have said something. That is really all that matters at the end of the day. These officials I am sure talked about it if they were wrong. And I would not be surprised if it was brought up if they were right.

Peace

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Jay R

So let's say you're refereeing a high school and the same situation applies. As the player is throwing the ball, he asks for a timeout. So you're going to award him the TO because he has control. In my mind, he doesn't have control for a timeout and thus this should not be a backcourt violation. I would like to hear other views on this play as it is common enough.

If he's throwing it, he's holding it even if it's briefly. So, if his teammate is requesting a TO while he is doing this, you grant it.

[Jay R]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Let's change the original post to: "A Louisville player tapped, or tipped, the ball into his backcourt."

Same call?

If it's a tip, there's no way that 's constitute control.