Looks like backcourt violation to me...?

[CMHCoachNRef]

Originally Posted by JugglingReferee

If the sequence was W32 OB, then W32 touches the ball while OB, black gets the throw-in and the arrow is set when the ball is at black's disposal for the throw-in.

No, it isn't. When W32 attains player control (just prior to stepping on the sideline), then the ball would be given to Black for the violation of stepping out of bounds. Further, since White controlled the ball BEFORE stepping out of bounds, the AP arrow would be set AS SOON AS WHITE GAINED CONTROL -- pointing in the direction of Black.

My question is would you give Black the arrow based on what you have seen concerning White's control of the ball (if he had either stepped out of bounds or been guilty of a travel prior to tossing the ball into play)?

If so, then a BC violation would be correct if he stayed in bounds. If not, the official probably got this one right.