Inbounding - foul?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by eyezen

Why not? B1 is inbounds and he fouls inbounder A1, it definitely is an intentional.

Only if B1 reaches OOB and fouls A1. If B1 commits a foul without reaching OOB, it's only an intentional if it meets the other criteria.

[eyezen]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Only if B1 reaches OOB and fouls A1. If B1 commits a foul without reaching OOB, it's only an intentional if it meets the other criteria.

Well duh.

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Only if B1 reaches OOB and fouls A1. If B1 commits a foul without reaching OOB, it's only an intentional if it meets the other criteria.

rule nine section 2
Penalties art 11
4. If an opponent(s) of the thrower reaches through the throw-in boundary-line plane and fouls the thrower, an intentional personal foul shall be charged to the offender. No warning for delay required. true

[Adam]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

rule nine section 2
Penalties art 11
4. If an opponent(s) of the thrower reaches through the throw-in boundary-line plane and fouls the thrower, an intentional personal foul shall be charged to the offender. No warning for delay required. true

Okay, I was reading "inverted" to mean simply that B1 fouls A1 rather than reaching through the plane to do it. I see what you mean now.

However, the intentional foul rule here is only for the defender reaching out of bounds. The only way you can call this intentional is if it's the same type of foul you'd call inentional on a ball handler inbounds.