Greetings from Alaska. fouled on the shot

[AKOFL]

Yes THE Wasilla. my thoughts were that his shooting motion had not been completed as he was still airborn. Say he wasn't fouled and the sae play occured. As he ent up for the shot he lost control but was able to tap it in before he came back down.

[Adam]

The shot can be over before the airborne shooter returns to the floor.
Consider this play:

A1 jumps for shot, gets fouled. The ball goes up and comes down to A1 prior to A1 landing. A1 bats the ball back up. Two completely different shots; second one does not count.

[AKOFL]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

The shot can be over before the airborne shooter returns to the floor.
Consider this play:

A1 jumps for shot, gets fouled. The ball goes up and comes down to A1 prior to A1 landing. A1 bats the ball back up. Two completely different shots; second one does not count.

I appreciate that point. I guess we need to decide if it is part of the original shot movement. Any rule thoughts come to mind? I thought u could argue it either way, but usually their is a right and wrong. Notice I said usually.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by AKOFL

I appreciate that point. I guess we need to decide if it is part of the original shot movement. Any rule thoughts come to mind? I thought u could argue it either way, but usually their is a right and wrong. Notice I said usually.

zm nails the rule reference above.

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by AKOFL

I appreciate that point. I guess we need to decide if it is part of the original shot movement. Any rule thoughts come to mind? I thought u could argue it either way, but usually their is a right and wrong. Notice I said usually.

I am having a hard time coming up with any scenario where the shooter's deliberate contacting of the ball after releasing it for a try isn't part of a new play: a rebound, putback or another shot attempt.

[AKOFL]

Any more situations would be beating a dead horse I think. I really loved that horse 2. If B1 holds the shooting arm from going up but A1 fights his way through to continue, he gets the bucket. Just because the ball comes loose a bit in that situation he looses the basket. that's a hard one to handle. It's not my 2 points though.Ha That's one dead horse!!!

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by AKOFL

Any more situations would be beating a dead horse I think. I really loved that horse 2. If B1 holds the shooting arm from going up but A1 fights his way through to continue, he gets the bucket. Just because the ball comes loose a bit in that situation he looses the basket. that's a hard one to handle. It's not my 2 points though.Ha That's one dead horse!!!

Well, you could always let the kid have the bucket on the second effort and pass on the foul.

[mick]

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle

I am having a hard time coming up with any scenario where the shooter's deliberate contacting of the ball after releasing it for a try isn't part of a new play: a rebound, putback or another shot attempt.

Bitsy,
Not the same, but there was something close in an NBA Championship game.
Can you picture a Michael Jordan highlight against the Pistons. [They showed it a lot over the years.]

MJ drives the middle of lane and goes up with his right...
He is fouled while holding the ball...
Still hanging, MJ switches the ball to his left...
He scores and then goes to the line.

[Caesar's Ghost]

Originally Posted by mick

Bitsy,
Not the same, but there was something close in an NBA Championship game.
Can you picture a Michael Jordan highlight against the Pistons. [They showed it a lot over the years.]

MJ drives the middle of lane and goes up with his right...
He is fouled while holding the ball...
Still hanging, MJ switches the ball to his left...
He scores and then goes to the line.

Thats a different play. MJ never lost control so is allowed the continuation. In the original play the player lost control.

[mick]

Originally Posted by Caesar's Ghost

Thats a different play. MJ never lost control so is allowed the continuation. In the original play the player lost control.

Yeah.
That's what I meant by "not the same...."

[A Pennsylvania Coach]

Originally Posted by mick

Bitsy,
Not the same, but there was something close in an NBA Championship game.
Can you picture a Michael Jordan highlight against the Pistons. [They showed it a lot over the years.]

MJ drives the middle of lane and goes up with his right...
He is fouled while holding the ball...
Still hanging, MJ switches the ball to his left...
He scores and then goes to the line.

The Bulls wouldn't play the Pistons in the NBA Championship as they are both in the Eastern Conference.

However, the play you refer to did happen in the NBA Finals against the Lakers. And he didn't get fouled.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DT1yNyRwd7w

But hey, otherwise spot on!

[mick]

Originally Posted by A Pennsylvania Coach

The Bulls wouldn't play the Pistons in the NBA Championship as they are both in the Eastern Conference.

However, the play you refer to did happen in the NBA Finals against the Lakers. And he didn't get fouled.

YouTube - Michael Jordan switches hands best quality

But hey, otherwise spot on!

I believe you are correct and that I kicked another one.
Thanks, PA Coach!

[OHBBREF]

Originally Posted by AKOFL

As he ent up for the shot he lost control but was able to tap it in before he came back down.

what if he got fouled after losing control but before the tap is this a try since he lost control???

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

what if he got fouled after losing control but before the tap is this a try since he lost control???

The player could be considered an airborne shooter if the official deems that he was originally trying for goal prior to losing control of the ball. That would mean that the foul entitles him to two FTs.

However, the tap had not yet begun at the time of the foul, so it cannot be considered in the play and any goal scored because of it would not count.

4-41-7 . . .

The tap starts when the player’s hand(s) touches the ball.