Is this a violation

rhino00047 · #1 (**permalink**) Tue Feb 08, 2000, 10:40pm

when a player takes a shot-- and the ball hits nothing (airball) but is a legitimate shot that may go over the rim -- can that player get the ball without it being a traveling violation

Pirate · #2 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 09, 2000, 12:37am

The situation you have described is legal. No traveling violation as long as you rule it is a try for goal.

#3 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 09, 2000, 01:37am

Incredible! This very question has surfaced several times in the last few weeks on this and other boards. I wonder if air-balls are becoming somewhat of an epidemic!

No travel!

Jeremy Hohn · #4 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 09, 2000, 08:01am

This is one of those plays where all the parents are screaming for a travel when a1 shoots an airball and then goes and gets it. Player control is lost on a shot and therefore cannot be penalized for going and retrieving that shot.

jackgil · #5 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 09, 2000, 02:06pm

Saw an NBA ref call this a travel against Charles Oakley in a Knicks game.

Tom Cook · #6 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 09, 2000, 02:11pm

As long as the ref judges that the "shot" was a legimate one the thrower gets a pat on the back for following his shot. I believe that the NBA has a rule prohibiting a player from rebounding his own shot if it hasn't hit the rim.

PublicBJ · #7 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 10, 2000, 10:36am

quote:
Originally posted by jackgil on 02-09-2000 01:06 PM
Saw an NBA ref call this a travel against Charles Oakley in a Knicks game.

It is a travel in the NBA...(probably one of the few travels they EVER call)

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Brian Johnson