when a player takes a shot-- and the ball hits nothing (airball) but is a legitimate shot that may go over the rim -- can that player get the ball without it being a traveling violation

The situation you have described is legal. No traveling violation as long as you rule it is a try for goal.

Incredible! This very question has surfaced several times in the last few weeks on this and other boards. I wonder if air-balls are becoming somewhat of an epidemic! http://www.ereferee.com/ubb/icons/icon7.gif

No travel!

This is one of those plays where all the parents are screaming for a travel when a1 shoots an airball and then goes and gets it. Player control is lost on a shot and therefore cannot be penalized for going and retrieving that shot.

Saw an NBA ref call this a travel against Charles Oakley in a Knicks game.

As long as the ref judges that the "shot" was a legimate one the thrower gets a pat on the back for following his shot. I believe that the NBA has a rule prohibiting a player from rebounding his own shot if it hasn't hit the rim.

<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial, Geneva">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by jackgil on 02-09-2000 01:06 PM
Saw an NBA ref call this a travel against Charles Oakley in a Knicks game. <HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

It is a travel in the NBA...(probably one of the few travels they EVER call)

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Brian Johnson