I affected a game I wasn't even working

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally Posted by Mark Padgett

When I came on for the start of my never-ending five game shift yesterday, the game before my first one was just ending. When I walked into the gym, there was a timeout with about 10 seconds left and the score was tied. One of the officials came up to me and asked me this question: "If a player was called for an intentional foul for reaching over the boundary and fouling an inbounder earlier in the game, does that also count as the first delay warning, just like if we called a technical for reaching over and hitting the ball?" I said yes. He said thanks.

The next thing I knew, he was explaining something to his partner, then they talked to both coaches. One of the coaches started making a big fuss and telling them they were "wrong" about something.

They then proceeded to have the other team shoot a technical. The shooter made both shots, then his team inbounded and was fouled, made both of a double bonus and then let the other team run the floor and score just as the horn went off.

I found out by talking with the scorer that the officials weren't sure of the call on the delay warning and were discussing it when I came in. He said that if they hadn't asked me, they (in his opinion from listening to their discussion) wouldn't have called the technical for the delay warning.

Boy - that was fun.

I am slightly confused:

A1 has the ball out-of-bounds for a throw-in. B1, who is defending against A1, reaches through the plan and fouls A1. This is an intentional personal foul. A1 will be awarded two free throws with no players lined up on the free throw lane. Team A will then be awarded a throw-in nearest the spot of B1's intentional foul against A1. If Team B had not been issued an official delay-of-game warning, it will be issued because of B1's intentional personal foul against A1. Even if Team B had previously been issued an official game of delay-of-game warning, Team B will not be charged with a technical foul for a delay-of-game infraction because B1's foul against A1 takes precedence in this play.

Therefore, I am confused as to why a technical foul would be charged to anybody or team in this situation and why technical foul free throws were shot.

It seems to me that the officials did not get it correct.

MTD, Sr.