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Valid point you've made about the wording. |
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I can only speak for me. I know if I place the ball on the floor it's in possesion or disposal of the team. If they violate then the other team gets the ball and vice versa or get penalize appropiately. |
I'm hitting this again for clarity now that I've had time to digest it.
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Change it slightly: A1 takes the ball for the throwin and drops it straight down so it bounces several times. While it bounces, he makes his hand signals. Before he can grab the bouncing ball, B1 reaches over and grabs it. I'm pretty sure I'd whistle this a T by instinct, and that I'd be right. A1 is in possession of this ball. It belongs to him until he releases the actual throwin pass. By rule, I can't find any basis to differentiate it from Nevada's 2nd situation above. #1: delay of game violation. #2: technical foul. |
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Short answer to your question: No. |
Ha thanks Snaqs.... read right over that.
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Hey it gave me a good excuse to try out the delete button... works! :)
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The rules still states that A1 must pass the ball directly onto the court or pass it to a teammate already OOB...A1 did neither, they put the ball on the floor with no teammate OOB or even moving to the ball OOB.
I'm handling this the same way I would if A1 was passing to A2 inbounds and the ball landed OOB...throw-in violation on team A for failing to pass it directly inbounds. |
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Can A1 bounce (dribble) the ball? How is that different than setting it down and picking it back up himself? |
I vote for #2, and here is why:
1) I am going to issue an official warning to Team B. See NFHS R4-S47-A1, R9-S2-A11, Penalty 1. 2) I am going to charge B1 with a technical foul. See NFHS R10-S3-A6a. I can understands BITS logic for wanting to use: NFHS R4-S47-A1, R9-S2-A11, Penalty 3, because one could infer that even though no player from Team A was in physical possession of the ball, it was at Team A's disposal when B1 reached thru the boundary plane and picked up the ball. MTD, Sr. |
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1). The ball was place on the floor by the official. 2). Team A place the ball on the floor. in both situations team b reach through and touched the ball. How can the same act have different interpretations on how to penalize? |
To me, the difference is of "possession" which is required by rule. I can argue that A is in possession of the ball even if he has temporarily set it down next to his feet. I have a harder time making that argument when the official has set it down instead and no one from A has picked it up yet.
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A1 didn't dribble, A1 didn't pick it back up, they left that's the difference. You can make an argument to support any of the 3 warning, T, violation on team A...my stance is team A did not follow the throw-in provisions and that occurred before B1 picked up the ball. In terms of common sense officiating blowing the cluster **** dead and getting a thrower OOB with the ball is probably the wisest choice. |
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I did not say there were two interpretations. I said that one could make the logical deduction that in this case the thrower could be considered in possession of the ball during a throw-in because the ball was at Team A's disposal for a throw-in. Both the NBCofUS&C and its successor organizations, the NFHS and the NCAA, have never made a ruling to my knowledge that defines this situation as a thrower being in possession of the ball while his team has the ball at its disposal. Therefore, it is a more logical to apply R9-S2-A11, Penalty 1 and NFHS R10-S3-A6a, than it is to use R9-S2-A11, Penalty 3, which requires the use of R10-S3-A11. The result is the same: team warning to Team B and a direct technical foul charged to B1. MTD, Sr. |
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BZ: In MHO, I suggest that you RE-read NFHS R7-S5-A7 completely, especially the last sentence of the article, as well as the rule that defines when a throw-in ends before you call a throw-in violation on Team A. MTD, Sr. |
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The throw-in ending isn't germane to team A violating prior to the ball touching a player. |
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