Situation 10 still bothers me.

[Splute]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Yes, completely different. It is not a violation to cause the ball to have backcourt status. If it were, it would be a violation for A (in the frontcourt) to lose control of the ball and have it bounce into the backcourt even without touching the ball again. Causing the ball to be OOB is a violation. Touching the ball after it goes into the backcourt is required for the violation (among other things), not just making have backcourt status.

I was not refering to differences of the violations, rather to the point that you are where you are till you get where you are going; ball status and court status. That position will determine if a violation ensues (yes it is a violation to cause the ball to go OOB). To me the point of the interp is basic to court status. Thus I understand the logic behind this interp; but I keep most things simple and try to take them as they are stated. Others prefer to do "what if scenarios" and look beyond the basic concept of the interp. Isnt what is stated in the Sit fundamentally true?
I also believe this could give the defense a slight advantage because once the ball is tipped they may immediately grab it where the offense may have to let it bounce once, etc.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Splute

I was not refering to differences of the violations, rather to the point that you are where you are till you get where you are going;

That's not it. "You are where you were till you get where you're going."

You are always where you are. That tells you nothing.

And: it scans better if you contract the last "you are."

[Splute]

You guys crack me up .... from the famous words of Animal House... I wasted 7 years of college for this...

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Splute

You guys crack me up .... from the famous words of Animal House... I wasted 7 years of college for this...

I guess you're too cracked up to get it right.

Originally Posted by John Belushi

“Christ, seven years of college, down the drain. Might as well join the f***ing Peace Corps.”

Harold Ramis is cringing somewhere.

[Splute]

Thanks mbyron and wish I had been with ya Juggling....

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by Splute

You guys crack me up .... from the famous words of Animal House... I wasted 7 years of college for this...

In college, I stayed in the residence which was home to all the events that led to the creation of Animal House.

We lived up to history and did some crazy stuff. Including p* raids.

[rainmaker]

Originally Posted by Splute

I was not refering to differences of the violations, rather to the point that you are where you are till you get where you are going; ball status and court status. That position will determine if a violation ensues (yes it is a violation to cause the ball to go OOB). To me the point of the interp is basic to court status. Thus I understand the logic behind this interp; but I keep most things simple and try to take them as they are stated. Others prefer to do "what if scenarios" and look beyond the basic concept of the interp. Isnt what is stated in the Sit fundamentally true?
I also believe this could give the defense a slight advantage because once the ball is tipped they may immediately grab it where the offense may have to let it bounce once, etc.

But, Splute, the point is that "who confers BC status" has never been part of the definition of BC violation before. If this is really what the interp intends, then they needed to make a bigger deal out of this change. It's a fundamental difference in the definition of what constitutes the violation.

[Splute]

I appreciate your patience with me and these are strickly my views based on the reading.
We all (?) agree that if B1 deflects the ball into the backcourt and the ball touches the backcourt, Team A may recover no violation. We all (?) agree that if B1 deflects a pass and a Team A player with frontcourt status catches the ball in the air and lands in their backcourt; it is a backcourt violation. Therefore in my mind the same is true if Team A catches (in the air, ball has not touched bc) a deflection that has frontcourt status, while standing in their backcourt gives the ball backcourt status and a team backcourt violation. It bites, but it seems fundamentally the same to me.
I will start over and re-read this post from the beginning to see if I have a brain block or just bain dramage

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Splute

I appreciate your patience with me and these are strickly my views based on the reading.
We all (?) agree that if B1 deflects the ball into the backcourt and the ball touches the backcourt, Team A may recover no violation.

Agree

Originally Posted by Splute

We all (?) agree that if B1 deflects a pass and a Team A player with frontcourt status catches the ball in the air and lands in their backcourt; it is a backcourt violation.

Agree...and the reason is A was the last to touch the ball BEFORE it gained backcourt status (catching it in the air while having FC stats) and was then the first to touch it AFTER gaining backcourt status (by landing in the backcourt while holding the ball)

Originally Posted by Splute

Therefore in my mind the same is true if Team A catches (in the air, ball has not touched bc) a deflection that has frontcourt status, while standing in their backcourt gives the ball backcourt status and a team backcourt violation.

But WHO was the LAST to touch it BEFORE it gained backcourt status? (Remember that a player can't can't possibly touch the ball before he touches the ball.)

Originally Posted by Splute

It bites, but it seems fundamentally the same to me.
I will start over and re-read this post from the beginning to see if I have a brain block or just bain dramage

The RULE, as written, is all about the timing of who touches the ball before/after the ball gains backcourt status. It is not about the status of the ball before/after it gains backcourt status.

[Splute]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

AgreeAgree...and the reason is A was the last to touch the ball BEFORE it gained backcourt status (catching it in the air while having FC stats) and was then the first to touch it AFTER gaining backcourt status (by landing in the backcourt while holding the ball)But WHO was the LAST to touch it BEFORE it gained backcourt status? (Remember that a player can't can't possibly touch the ball before he touches the ball.)


The RULE, as written, is all about the timing of who touches the ball before/after the ball gains backcourt status. It is not about the status of the ball before/after it gains backcourt status.

I see your point and Bob's and Juulie's.... if the ONLY way you can have a BC Violation is by Rule 9-9-1, I must concede. I let Sits. sway my thinking that Ball Status could be a factor, regardless of who touched last in FC.
Thanks...

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Splute

I was not refering to differences of the violations, rather to the point that you are where you are till you get where you are going; ball status and court status. That position will determine if a violation ensues (yes it is a violation to cause the ball to go OOB).

Note that "cause the ball to go OOB" is specifically defined in the book and specifically includes "touching a player OOB before touching something else" (see 7-2-1 second clause and 7-2-2). These same qualification don't (or at least didn't) apply to BC violations.