Let me try to simplify this whole thing. This is an official's timeout. The official blew the whistle to make a correction. If a team calls a timeout before the throw-in is completed, where is the next throw-in? The ball has not yet achieved any status other than its original position.
On a throw-in, if the ball bounces in the frontcourt, has it attained front court status? No. A player in the backcourt may be the 1st to touch it after it touches the floor in the frontcourt.
The same applies to this situation.

Officials don't get time outs.

"Official's timeout" is announcer-speak.

Yes, it has attained front court status. Take another look at 4-4-2. The rules for backcourt violation and backcourt status are related, but there are key differences.

Mark, I think he has it correct. If the ball and only the ball touches the front court, it does not attain front court status yet.

Just because there's no team control doesn't mean it hasn't attained FC status.

NFHS 4-4-2:
A ball which is in contact with a player or with the court is in the frontcourt if neither the ball nor the player is touching the backcourt.

Q.E.D.

See also 9-9-2.

Sorry, it's a typo. I meant 4-4-3, which deals with BALL LOCATION. I've gone back and edited my previous posts to the correct number.



Joe, what you are missing is that there is not a rule in the book which says to do what you seem to think is THE way to handle the situation.
Even though the stoppage occurred during a throw-in, the POI rule does not apply because the reason for the stoppage is NOT one of those listed in 4-36-1. We agree that this is not an accidental whistle, right?

It is unfortunate, but I believe that the rule which governs this play is 6-4-3e. That describes the conditions under which the ball became dead. That rule says to use the AP arrow at the location of the ball.

See the problem?

I'm also maintaining that this is not an accidental whistle (the correct NFHS terminology), but that going to the AP is unfortunately correct because 6-4-3e describes the conditions under which the ball became dead.

So you ask your rules interpreter for help and rather than do some bookwork and attempt cite an applicable rule for you, he tells you to fall back on 2-3 and advance the ball for the throwing team. :rolleyes:

I'm sure that JR will have some choice words for him about that decision.

rule 5 section 10 art 2
 

With Due respect to rules interpreters and those who have posted thus far IMHO
This is NOT an INADVERTANT WHISTLE it IS a TIMERS MISTAKE that is why you are blowing the whistle so you can find what to do, But because there is a rule involved you can not no mater how badly covered use elasticity to fill in the gaps or your feelings or personal opinions.
I think this is how you have to go about resetting play.
1)
now if the ball was not touched
the clock is restet to 32.2
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the ball was touched and the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
no time ran off the clock since it was not touched

2)
if the ball was touched by the inbounding team
The clock is reset at something less than 32.2 (Ref knowledge)
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
and time came off the clock because it was touched

3)
if the ball was intercepted by the defending team then the whisle blows
The clock is reset at something less than 32.2
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
and time came off the clock because it was touched.

and in these resets there are no advantages gained because things are at best POI when the whistle blew.

Please show me where in the rules it says to go to the POI when the whistle is sounded for a timer's mistake. Sorry, but that is not one of the reasons listed in 4-36-1. Care to try again?

What did I post, Nevada? I said that I would copy and paste the original post and send it to my interpreter who is on the Fed rules committee. That is exactly what I did. Several on here who are far more knowledgeble than me had disagreements on what the solution was and many cited rules and cases or stated there was not enough clarity. But, no. Asking someone with more knowledge than me is a dumb thing to do according to Nevada. Much better to figure out something on my own and assume it is correct. I guess I should have just asked you since you are smarter than everyone else combined on this board.

Relavant case that no one has mentioned....(I don't have my books with me so someone else can look up the reference).

Violation by B. Ref mistakenly gives ball to B for the throwin. The untouched ball is rolling down the court when the ref realizes the error and blows the whistle. The case play says that until the throwin is touched, the mistake can be corrected....that A will get the ball.

WHY? There is rules justification for it and the same rule applies here.

Because the ball became dead and a timeout, goal or infraction of the rules was involved (it was what dictated that there would be a throwin to begin with). And until that throwin ends or there is a violation or foul, team A has a throwin due them. A will continue to be due that throwin...and at the original spot since it is still part of the penalty for the infraction that had occured or part of the result of a team scoring a goal.

So, when the ball becomes dead as it is rolling down the floor on the throwin, the throwing team will get the ball at the original spot.

How can there be BC, when there's no team control? Which end is the backcourt when neither team has control?