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SoInZebra Wed Mar 21, 2007 08:07am

Long Time Lurker, First Time Poster
 
Greetings all - had a play last weekend that I would like some opinions on:

After a TO, Team A (down by 6) is inbounding the ball on the endline after a made basket with 32.3 seconds in the 4th QTR. A1 throws the ball in and A2 allows it to bounce/roll to about midcourt without touching it in an attempt to keep the clock stopped.

As soon as I realize that A2 has not touched the ball I glance up and see the clock running. When I kill the play the ball is roughly at the division line. After instructing the timer to put 32.3 back up I would be interested in hearing your thoughts on where to inbound the ball.

For the record I inbounded at half court with 32.3 on the clock because that was the location of the live ball when I stopped play to fix the timing error and I could see Team B's coach salivating over the opportunity to put the ball on the endline and slap a press on, in effect allowing the timing error to deny Team A the precious 2 or 3 seconds it earned on the original inbound.

SmokeEater Wed Mar 21, 2007 08:11am

I don't know if that is correct by the rules, but it sounds good to me.

BktBallRef Wed Mar 21, 2007 08:14am

There's no concensus on this play. Some will tell you to do what you did. Others will tell you to take the ball back to the endline. I know of no case play or interp that addresses it.

One question. After the TO, Team B didn't press. Why do you think that he's suddenly going to press now? And more importantly, why would you care? That's not our concern.

Welcome to the forum.

AFHusker Wed Mar 21, 2007 08:36am

I would say it should go back to the endline. My initial thought to back this up is if the ball goes OOB without being touched on a throw-in, it goes back to the spot of the throw-in.

Adam Wed Mar 21, 2007 08:42am

But that would be on an offensive throwin violation. This isn't that. The live ball had reached the division line without being touched. The offense had legally advanced the ball that far, and should have had the full 32.3 seconds from that point.
Like BktBallRef says, it fits outside the scope of things the Fed tells us how to fix. This one takes a little thinking outside the box.

bob jenkins Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:32am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SoInZebra
As soon as I realize that A2 has not touched the ball I glance up and see the clock running. When I kill the play the ball is roughly at the division line.

Inadvertant whistle with no team in control. Go to the arrow. ;)

Scrapper1 Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:34am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Inadvertant whistle with no team in control. Go to the arrow. ;)

I see the smilie, but please be sure to make it very clear that this is a joke. Do NOT go to the arrow in this situation!!!

This is an inadvertent whistle during a throw-in. The POI is a throw-in to the team who is making the throw-in.

NewNCref Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:41am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
This is an inadvertent whistle during a throw-in. The POI is a throw-in to the team who is making the throw-in.

I disagree. If it was an IW, then you would have to go with the AP as there is no team control. HOWEVER, he killed the play because the clock started improperly, so I don't consider that an IW.

Mark Dexter Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref
I disagree. If it was an IW, then you would have to go with the AP as there is no team control. HOWEVER, he killed the play because the clock started improperly, so I don't consider that an IW.

While I agree that it's not an IW, per se, Scrapper is correct as to what to do when an IW occurs.

Take a look at 4-36-2 (POI rule) and 4-42-5.

Raymond Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:45am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells
But that would be on an offensive throwin violation. This isn't that. The live ball had reached the division line without being touched. The offense had legally advanced the ball that far, and should have had the full 32.3 seconds from that point.
Like BktBallRef says, it fits outside the scope of things the Fed tells us how to fix. This one takes a little thinking outside the box.

If an inadvertent whistle occurs while Team A is passing the ball doesn't the ensuing throw-in go back to the spot nearest where the last pass came from?

Scrapper1 Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:51am

Interesting point that it is not an official's "accidental whistle". It's definitely on purpose to correct the timing mistake. However, without any other rule to go by, I would continue using the POI rule and give the throw-in to the team that had just made the throw-in.

JoeTheRef Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:52am

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref[B
]I disagree. If it was an IW, then you would have to go with the AP as there is no team control. [/B] HOWEVER, he killed the play because the clock started improperly, so I don't consider that an IW.

You are correct that there is no team control during the throw in, but would be incorrect in this situation of going to the AP should an IW happen in the OP's situation. Team-A coming out of a time-out after a made basket..... If the IW happens here, the ball goes back to to Team A. See Caseplay 7.5.4. See the ruling for play D.

Scrapper1 Wed Mar 21, 2007 09:54am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef
If an inadvertent whistle occurs while Team A is passing the ball doesn't the ensuing throw-in go back to the spot nearest where the last pass came from?

There's no real clear guidance on that, BNR. The rule says that the POI is "a free throw or a throw-in when the stoppage occurred during this activity or if a team is entitled to such." (4-36-2b)

So here, we have a stoppage during a throw-in, but not when the thrower is holding the ball. So what does the rule tell us to do? It doesn't!! :) If there were team control, then you'd put it in play at the spot closest to the location of the ball (4-36-2a). But, as we all know, there's no team control during the throw-in.

NewNCref Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:10am

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
You are correct that there is no team control during the throw in, but would be incorrect in this situation of going to the AP should an IW happen in the OP's situation. Team-A coming out of a time-out after a made basket..... If the IW happens here, the ball goes back to to Team A. See Caseplay 7.5.4. See the ruling for play D.

I stand corrected! Thanks Joe and Mark. Good thing I've never had to make this call before!

Here's another thought I'd like to see what you guys think about, if there's no press on, why not just wait until he touches the ball, blow it dead, and reset the clock to the correct time, and then there's no question about where to give him the ball. Then again, that could be risky if the defense is anywhere near the ball or if Jon Diebler is playing defense.:p

SoInZebra Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:14am

NCRef-

I thought about doing that - in the locker room after the game. I went with the first instinct which was to kill the play and fix the clock.

Jurassic Referee Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:18am

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref
Here's another thought I'd like to see what you guys think about, if there's no press on, why not just wait until he touches the ball, blow it dead, and reset the clock to the correct time, and then there's no question about where to give him the ball.

Oh? Do you a rules citation that will back up the statement that there's <b>no</b> question about where to give the replacement throw-in? And how much time are you going to <b>accurately</b> take <b>off</b> the clock to allow for the time that elapsed between the throw-in ending and your whistle? Or do you just ignore that time?

The play simply isn't covered.Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo. You're letting them move the ball up the court <b>without</b> using any time <b>at all</b> to do so. That's completely unfair to the defense imo.

Mark Dexter Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:27am

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref
Here's another thought I'd like to see what you guys think about, if there's no press on, why not just wait until he touches the ball, blow it dead, and reset the clock to the correct time, and then there's no question about where to give him the ball. Then again, that could be risky if the defense is anywhere near the ball or if Jon Diebler is playing defense.:p

I think you nailed it right there. Bottom line is that you never know what will happen in the future, so it's best to correct clock (or other) mistakes right when you notice them. (That said, no need to go overboard like me - I'm so aware of the clock that I've had it corrected in middle school blowout games.)

The ideal situation is to have Diebler ref. That way he can do the book and the clock all at the same time.

NewNCref Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:46am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Oh? Do you a rules citation that will back up the statement that there's <b>no</b> question about where to give the replacement throw-in? And how much time are you going to <b>accurately</b> take <b>off</b> the clock to allow for the time that elapsed between the throw-in ending and your whistle? Or do you just ignore that time?

The play simply isn't covered.Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo. You're letting them move the ball up the court <b>without</b> using any time <b>at all</b> to do so. That's completely unfair to the defense imo.

If the guy is just letting it bounce in front of him, without touching it as to delay the start of the clock, and then grabs it with both hands, the clock would start at the same moment that player control was gained. I can then say that he gained possession of the ball at the time that should have been on the clock (though granted my knowledge of physics is lacking, I think I'm probably making some wrong assertion about simultaneous events).

I do agree with you, JR, that it does seem like an unfair advantage is being gained, but during every throw-in, the throwing team gets to move the ball up the court without using any time. It could be rolled to half court before it's touched, and you're already halfway to the basket without using any time. Considering it was an timer's error, and not some play designed for them to move the ball up the court without using any time, I'm okay with it in this regard.

The reason I would not do it is that it's too risky, and wouldn't be proper in all situations. What if there was a defender on him who then stole the ball, or if he doesn't immediately grab the ball, but tips it. It's all too risky, so I wouldn't try it. Just thinking out loud to get other's opinions.

Mark Dexter Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:56am

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref
If the guy is just letting it bounce in front of him, without touching it as to delay the start of the clock, and then grabs it with both hands, the clock would start at the same moment that player control was gained. I can then say that he gained possession of the ball at the time that should have been on the clock (though granted my knowledge of physics is lacking, I think I'm probably making some wrong assertion about simultaneous events).

Yeah. Technically, in this case, there would be time between when the ball was touched and when the whistle was blown. FWIW, the NBA rules/clock guidelines state that AT LEAST 0.3 must come off the clock when the ball is inbounded and followed by a quick whistle.

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:58am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
The play simply isn't covered.Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo. You're letting them move the ball up the court <b>without</b> using any time <b>at all</b> to do so. That's completely unfair to the defense imo.

I agree 137%

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 12:00pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Oh? Do you a rules citation that will back up the statement that there's <b>no</b> question about where to give the replacement throw-in? And how much time are you going to <b>accurately</b> take <b>off</b> the clock to allow for the time that elapsed between the throw-in ending and your whistle? Or do you just ignore that time?

The play simply isn't covered.Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo. You're letting them move the ball up the court <b>without</b> using any time <b>at all</b> to do so. That's completely unfair to the defense imo.

This play was covered during this season by the NCAA in a bulletin sent out to officials via the website. If there is no touch when you blow the whistle, you must return to the throw-in spot and put the correct time on the clock.
If you blow the whistle after the touch, you inbound closest to the touch and correct the clock to what you have knowledge (how much time elapsed between the touch and the whistle).

Scrapper1 Wed Mar 21, 2007 12:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
This play was covered during this season by the NCAA in a bulletin sent out to officials via the website.

Would you mind posting the ruling? I don't remember seeing it in the bulletins, and I just now checked the E-officials site and I don't see it there.

Thanks.

Adam Wed Mar 21, 2007 12:16pm

Easy then, let him touch it, start a count, and blow the whistle after a few seconds if he's not being closely guarded.

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 12:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Would you mind posting the ruling? I don't remember seeing it in the bulletins, and I just now checked the E-officials site and I don't see it there.

Thanks.

I looked again on the site as well and couldn't find it either. Thinking back, it might have been issued by assignors as handed down by the NCAA.

Texas Aggie Wed Mar 21, 2007 12:26pm

Quote:

Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo.
JR is right. In some ways, you could also be penalizing the team making the throw in as they would now, at the sideline, have a spot throw in.

Either way you look at it, go back and start over.

SoInZebra Wed Mar 21, 2007 12:33pm

I understand your rationale about putting the ball back on the baseline except for your thought that Team A gained an unfair advantage in advancing the ball without any time elapsing.

Team A legally advanced the ball by throwing it in and not touching it. Team B had an opportunity to position a player or players in the backcourt to force Team A to touch the ball and start the clock. They chose not to.

It seemed then, and still does now, that it is more disadvantageous to put the ball back on the baseline and allow the defense to set up to force Team A to touch the ball inbounds quicker than they would have without the timing error and robbing of of 2-3 seconds that Team B would have allowed had teh timing error not occured.

Adam Wed Mar 21, 2007 01:09pm

Bottom line for me: it's not covered explicitly in the rules or case play; do what's right.

Scrapper1 Wed Mar 21, 2007 02:12pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
I looked again on the site as well and couldn't find it either. Thinking back, it might have been issued by assignors as handed down by the NCAA.

It wasn't handed down through my assignors on the men's side. And, I think, the women's side last year sent down an interp that there absolutely were to be no do-overs.

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 02:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
It wasn't handed down through my assignors on the men's side. And, I think, the women's side last year sent down an interp that there absolutely were to be no do-overs.

Putting time on/taking time off clock – ‘do-overs’.
a. The primary theme of the most recent posting addresses when it is or is not appropriate to put time on or take time off clocks. More specifically, the topic focuses on ‘do-overs’.
NCAA MEMORANDUM
January 12, 2007
Page No. 3
_________
b. According to NCAA rules, the only time that someone can put time back on the clock is when there is a timer’s mistake or a malfunctioning of the clock. If the mistake is by a shot clock operator, that mistake must be corrected within the shot clock period in which it occurred (NCAA Rule 2-6.6).
c. If the mistake is by the game clock operator, that mistake must be corrected before the second live ball is touched inbounds or out of bounds by a player (Rule 2-5.1.f).
d. As with correctable errors (Rule 2-11), there are specific windows of time in which a timer’s mistake can be corrected. After those time limits have passed, officials are not permitted by rule to correct the error. Therefore, knowing the rules is imperative to enforcing them correctly.
e. In addition, just because a play does not look right or seem fair, the job of the officials is to enforce the rules. It is not the officials’ job to reward a good play and penalize a bad play. Our job is to apply and enforce the rules, consistently, as written.
f. Officials are not permitted to perform a ‘do-over’ when things do not seem right or fair. Incorporating personal officiating philosophies with total disregard for NCAA rules is never appropriate. It may also be that officials are not totally disregarding a rule; they simply may not know the applicable rule. When officials know and enforce the rules, then the game can be called the same way for everyone who plays it.

Off of the website under conference call minutes.

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 02:53pm

Here's a little more info from NCAA (Feb. 9)

The second interpretation addresses a rewrite of the ruling in A.R. 120. The ruling presently reads, “…the referee cannot correct the official timer’s mistake unless he or she knows exactly how much playing time elapsed while the game clock was stopped…” The rewrite of the ruling in A.R. 120 further supports the fact that a do-over is not permitted when there has been a timer’s mistake. This ruling was changed to clarify that officials must use all available resources and information when making a decision regarding game and/or shot clock time adjustments. Officials may not always know the exact time, as stated in the original ruling, which shall not prohibit officials from adjusting the clock(s) appropriately.

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 02:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Here's a little more info from NCAA.

The second interpretation addresses a rewrite of the ruling in A.R. 120. The ruling presently reads, “…the referee cannot correct the official timer’s mistake unless he or she knows exactly how much playing time elapsed while the game clock was stopped…” The rewrite of the ruling in A.R. 120 further supports the fact that a do-over is not permitted when there has been a timer’s mistake. This ruling was changed to clarify that officials must use all available resources and information when making a decision regarding game and/or shot clock time adjustments. Officials may not always know the exact time, as stated in the original ruling, which shall not prohibit officials from adjusting the clock(s) appropriately.

I'm sorry, I just don't see what all this has to do with the original play or the suggestion to wait until someone touches the ball (he probably should have said *controls* the ball but that doesn't matter). None of this is a 'do-over'.

What would you do again?

Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. Wed Mar 21, 2007 03:13pm

I am joining this thread late. But here is my take on the situation.

I am not going to do anything until A2 picks up the ball. The moment that A2 takes control of the ball I am going to stop play and do the following things: 1) I am going to correct the clock to 32.2 seconds. I know that is the exact time on the clock because I have definite knowledge of the time. 2) I am going to Team A the ball for a throw-in nearest to the spot that A2 took control of the ball.

Remember, Team A has not done anything wrong in this situation. Team A is doing what the rules allow them to do. The Timer has made a msitake that should not be used against Team A to stop play too soon.

MTD, Sr.

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 03:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
I'm sorry, I just don't see what all this has to do with the original play or the suggestion to wait until someone touches the ball (he probably should have said *controls* the ball but that doesn't matter). None of this is a 'do-over'.

What would you do again?

Since the whistle blew b4 a player touched the ball, it is not a "do-over" to resume at the point of interruption. The throw-in was never completed so you must inbound at the original spot. Basic stuff to me. The NCAA change said that if the case was that he had touched it, the official could take off the appropriate time (estimate) and does not have to know exactly how much. And then have the throw-in closest to where it was touched.

Hope I'm not clear as mud. :rolleyes: :o

Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. Wed Mar 21, 2007 03:18pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Oh? Do you a rules citation that will back up the statement that there's <b>no</b> question about where to give the replacement throw-in? And how much time are you going to <b>accurately</b> take <b>off</b> the clock to allow for the time that elapsed between the throw-in ending and your whistle? Or do you just ignore that time?

The play simply isn't covered.Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo. You're letting them move the ball up the court <b>without</b> using any time <b>at all</b> to do so. That's completely unfair to the defense imo.


JR:

We are going to have to agree to disagree on this play. See my first post in this thread. This play really is not different that then monumental one of a year or so ago. And so what if B2 runs in and intercepts the inbounds pass. The Timer's mistake has no bearing on the throw-in. It is not a do-over.

MTD, Sr.

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 03:27pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Since the whistle blew b4 a player touched the ball, it is not a "do-over" to resume at the point of interruption. The throw-in was never completed so you must inbound at the original spot. Basic stuff to me. The NCAA change said that if the case was that he had touched it, the official could take off the appropriate time (estimate) and does not have to know exactly how much. And then have the throw-in closest to where it was touched.

Hope I'm not clear as mud. :rolleyes: :o

I still can't see where this play is covered by these bulletins.

There are 2 ways to handle it:

1. Blow it dead before the touch and fix the clock.
2. Blow it dead after the touch and fix the clock.
(well, a 3rd way is you can ignore it I guess)

In either case you know (or should know) how to fix the clock. The only part that is relevant is the NCAA's telling us to adjust the clock even though there might be some uncertainty, and that seems to be your response to JR's (stupid) question.

I don't think anyone is asking for a do-over. The only disagreement is where the throw-in is if you take the first choice. Seems that you, JR & I agree it should go back to the endline.

Camron Rust Wed Mar 21, 2007 06:12pm

My opinion...

If the whistle is blown before the throwin is touched, the ball goes back to the orignal spot. The ball becomes dead when no team is in control of the ball but when one team is due a throwin. It is just like an inadvertant whistle as far as how it should be restarted. To advance the ball gives the throwin team an advantage. They would get the ball halfway down the court with the clock stopped and an opportunity to throw it further down the court (with full speed and in any direction) rather than having it rolling at midcourt in one slow direction.

If the whistle is blown after the touch, the ball is at that spot. A gained an advantage but it is supported by rule.

I'd do the former. Blow the whistle as soon as I see the clock running early.

26 Year Gap Wed Mar 21, 2007 06:14pm

Which team inbounded? Home or visitors? I think I would look at 2-3 here as well. I think there is merit with either response, but I would probably put it in play at the point where the ball ended up. I will copy and paste the original sitch and send it to my interpreter who is on the rules committee, though, and let people know what the response is.

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 06:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SoInZebra
Greetings all - had a play last weekend that I would like some opinions on:

After a TO, Team A (down by 6) is inbounding the ball on the endline after a made basket with 32.3 seconds in the 4th QTR. A1 throws the ball in and A2 allows it to bounce/roll to about midcourt without touching it in an attempt to keep the clock stopped.

As soon as I realize that A2 has not touched the ball I glance up and see the clock running. When I kill the play the ball is roughly at the division line. After instructing the timer to put 32.3 back up I would be interested in hearing your thoughts on where to inbound the ball.

For the record I inbounded at half court with 32.3 on the clock because that was the location of the live ball when I stopped play to fix the timing error and I could see Team B's coach salivating over the opportunity to put the ball on the endline and slap a press on, in effect allowing the timing error to deny Team A the precious 2 or 3 seconds it earned on the original inbound.

I happen to believe that this play IS covered by the current NFHS rules, unfortunately quite poorly.

The pertinent rules are:

DEAD BALL
6-7-5 The ball becomes dead, or remains dead, when:
. . . An official's whistle is blown

ALTERNATING POSSESSION
6-4-3 . . . Alternating-possession throw-ins shall be from the out-of-bounds spot nearest to where the ball was located. An alternating-possession throw-in shall result when:
e. The ball becomes dead when neither team is in control and no goal, infraction nor end of a quarter/extra period is involved.

CONTROL, PLAYER AND TEAM
4-12-6 . . . Neither team control nor player control exists during a dead ball, throw-in, a jump ball or when the ball is in flight during a try or tap for goal.

BALL LOCATION,
4-4-3 . . . A ball which is in flight retains the same location as when it was last in contact with a player or the court.

Therefore, by the current wording of the NFHS rules, this play results in an AP throw-in from the nearest OOB spot to where the ball last contacted the floor. I'll state now that I believe that this is an absolutely horrible outcome, but it is the current application of the rules. In my opinion, any official who did it that way would need a police escort out of the gym, if the arrow happened to favor the defense. So what else can we do?

What should have been done two years ago when the definition of POI was added is that the sentence from 6-4-3e should have been moved into 4-36-1. It is very similar to an interrupted game, but not exactly the same. The two should be treated in the same manner though. (Note: Until the rules are changed, I'm ruling that the situation in the OP IS an "interrupted game" and applying the POI rule.)

What this would do is allow the POI sequence to properly be applied to this situation. 4-36-2a would be bypassed as there is no team control, but 4-36-2b would take precedence over 4-36-2c, since the stoppage occurred DURING the throw-in, thus the AP arrow would not need to be used. (However, if the ball had been tapped or deflected on the court, but the whistle sounded prior to control being established, then 4-36-2c would take effect.)

RULE 4, SECTION 36 POINT OF INTERRUPTION
ART. 1 . . . Method of resuming play due to an official's accidental whistle, an interrupted game, as in 5-4-3, a correctable error, as in 2-10-6, a double personal, double technical or simultaneous foul, as in 4-19-8 and 4-19-10. [The ball becomes dead when <STRIKE>neither team is in control and</STRIKE> no goal, infraction, (time-out,) nor end of a quarter/extra period is involved.]
ART. 2 …Play shall be resumed by one of the following:
a. A throw-in to the team that was in control at a spot nearest to where the ball was located when the stoppage occurred.
b. A free throw or a throw-in when the stoppage occurred during this activity or if a team is entitled to such.
c. An alternating-possession throw-in when the point of interruption is such that neither team is in control and no goal, infraction, nor end of quarter/extra period is involved.

Applying this would give the ball back to the throwing team at the original throw-in location because 4-36-2b does NOT say ball location. A casebook play could be added to clarify this.

I'll pass this along to my fellow NV official who is on the NFHS rules committee. The wording needs some fine-tuning to account for time-outs, but I think that we can make it right. :)

Jurassic Referee Wed Mar 21, 2007 06:48pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I happen to believe that this play IS covered by the current NFHS rules, unfortunately quite poorly.

The pertinent rules are:

DEAD BALL
6-7-5 The ball becomes dead, or remains dead, when:
. . . An official's whistle is blown

ALTERNATING POSSESSION
6-4-3 . . . Alternating-possession throw-ins shall be from the out-of-bounds spot nearest to where the ball was located. An alternating-possession throw-in shall result when:
e. The ball becomes dead when neither team is in control and no goal, infraction nor end of a quarter/extra period is involved.

CONTROL, PLAYER AND TEAM
4-12-6 . . . Neither team control nor player control exists during a dead ball, throw-in, a jump ball or when the ball is in flight during a try or tap for goal.

BALL LOCATION,
4-3-3 . . . A ball which is in flight retains the same location as when it was last in contact with a player or the court.

Therefore, by the current wording of the NFHS rules, this play results in an AP throw-in from the nearest OOB spot to where the ball last contacted the floor. I'll state now that I believe that this is an absolutely horrible outcome, but it is the current application of the rules. In my opinion, any official who did it that way would need a police escort out of the gym, if the arrow happened to favor the defense. So what else can we do?

What should have been done two years ago when the definition of POI was added is that the sentence from 6-4-3e should have been moved into 4-36-1. It is very similar to an interrupted game, but not exactly the same. The two should be treated in the same manner though. (Note: Until the rules are changed, I'm ruling that the situation in the OP IS an "interrupted game" and applying the POI rule.)

What this would do is allow the POI sequence to properly be applied to this situation. 4-36-2a would be bypassed as there is no team control, but 4-36-2b would take precedence over 4-36-2c, since the stoppage occurred DURING the throw-in, thus the AP arrow would not need to be used. (However, if the ball had been tapped or deflected on the court, but the whistle sounded prior to control being established, then 4-36-2c would take effect.)

RULE 4, SECTION 36 POINT OF INTERRUPTION
ART. 1 . . . Method of resuming play due to an official's accidental whistle, an interrupted game, as in 5-4-3, a correctable error, as in 2-10-6, a double personal, double technical or simultaneous foul, as in 4-19-8 and 4-19-10. [The ball becomes dead when <strike>neither team is in control and</strike> no goal, infraction, (time-out,) nor end of a quarter/extra period is involved.]
ART. 2 …Play shall be resumed by one of the following:
a. A throw-in to the team that was in control at a spot nearest to where the ball was located when the stoppage occurred.
b. A free throw or a throw-in when the stoppage occurred during this activity or if a team is entitled to such.
c. An alternating-possession throw-in when the point of interruption is such that neither team is in control and no goal, infraction, nor end of quarter/extra period is involved.

Applying this would give the ball back to the throwing team at the original throw-in location because 4-36-2b does NOT say ball location. A casebook play could be added to clarify this.

I'll pass this along to my fellow NV official who is on the NFHS rules committee. The wording needs some fine-tuning to account for time-outs, but I think that we can make it right. :)

I happen to believe you're completely wrong. Nowayinhell is that the purpose and intent of the rule. Your personal interpretation above is just plain ludicrous.

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:00pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
I happen to believe you're completely wrong. Nowayinhell is that the purpose and intent of the rule. Your personal interpretation above is just plain ludicrous.

You have to go to purpose and intent, JR, because you can't argue with the wording that I cited.

Now aren't you the guy who always says to enforce the rules AS WRITTEN? :D

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I happen to believe that this play IS covered by the current NFHS rules, unfortunately quite poorly.

The pertinent rules are:

BALL LOCATION,
4-3-3 . . . A ball which is in flight retains the same location as when it was last in contact with a player or the court.

Yet another bullsh1t interpretation from the King of Bullsh1t Interpretations.

Assuming you blow the whistle before anyone touches the ball after it's rolled in why does the ball retain the location it last touched on the court instead of where it last touched a player?

Note they use the word *or*.

Geeze...time to visit the ignore feature.

Jurassic Referee Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Yet another bullsh1t interpretation from the King of Bullsh1t Interpretations.

That I'll agree with.

Jurassic Referee Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:24pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
You have to go to purpose and intent, JR, because you can't argue with the wording that I cited.

Now aren't you the guy who always says to enforce the rules AS WRITTEN? :D

Nevada, to be quite honest, I didn't read your post to the end. I was laughing too hard. You've come with some dandies before, but that one ranks right up there with your best.

Again, ludicrous.

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:28pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Yet another bullsh1t interpretation from the King of Bullsh1t Interpretations.

Assuming you blow the whistle before anyone touches the ball after it's rolled in why does the ball retain the location it last touched on the court instead of where it last touched a player?

Note they use the word *or*.

Geeze...time to visit the ignore feature.

It doesn't apply on a throw-in. So are you gonna assume the throw-in would have been completed? You can't give the team something they didn't earn. The only way the new throw-in spot changes is if the previous throw-in is completed. There was no infraction that would place the ball at a new spot when the whistle blew.

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:35pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
It doesn't apply on a throw-in.

Ya know, I looked and I looked and I looked again and I just cannot find that little asterisk that says "does not apply to throw-ins".

You're gonna have to help me out here. Extra credit if you can quote a real rule.

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:35pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Yet another bullsh1t interpretation from the King of Bullsh1t Interpretations.

Assuming you blow the whistle before anyone touches the ball after it's rolled in why does the ball retain the location it last touched on the court instead of where it last touched a player?

Note they use the word *or*.

Geeze...time to visit the ignore feature.

Because which one happened last or most recently, Dan? The ball contacted the court, so that is it's location. It's not hard.

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:37pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Ya know, I looked and I looked and I looked again and I just cannot find that little asterisk that says "does not apply to throw-ins".

You're gonna have to help me out here. Extra credit if you can quote a real rule.

This is scary. Dan and I agree on this. Why wouldn't 4-4-3 apply during a throw-in? Is there somewhere in the rules where it says that it doesn't?

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:39pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Because which one happened last or most recently, Dan? The ball contacted the court, so that is it's location. It's not hard.

So you're interpreting the word "or" as "the last or most recent thing that happened".

Nice.

I prefer to interpret it as "or".

It's not hard.

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:41pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
This is scary. Dan and I agree on this. Why wouldn't 4-3-3 apply during a throw-in? Is there somewhere in the rules where it says that it doesn't?

Legitimate question followed by another:

If you have a double foul in the key after the throw-in has been released but before it is touched(like the current situation), where is the POI?

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
So you're interpreting the word "or" as "the last or most recent thing that happened".

Where it last touched a player or the court, obviously means just that.

Sorry that you don't agree, but you are going to be in the minority on that one.

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Legitimate question followed by another:

If you have a double foul in the key after the throw-in has been released but before it is touched(like the current situation), where is the POI?

Ah, answering a question with another question. I like that, I'll give it a shot...

Where in the original post is there a foul of any type?

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Ah, answering a question with another question. I like that, I'll give it a shot...

Where in the original post is there a foul of any type?

Let me connect the dots....
Would the throw-in spot be any different in the 2 scenarios? (Mine or the original)

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Legitimate question followed by another:

If you have a double foul in the key after the throw-in has been released but before it is touched(like the current situation), where is the POI?

The original throw-in spot.

Why? -- because a double foul DURING a throw-in is clearly one of the items listed in 4-36-1 that invokes the POI rule. Ball location doesn't matter if the double foul happened DURING the throw-in because 4-36-2b doesn't say to go to the location of the ball, only 4-36-2a does. For part b the POI is the throw-in.

Nevadaref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:48pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Let me connect the dots....
Would the throw-in spot be any different in the 2 scenarios? (Mine or the original)

Yep, because under the current rules the OP is NOT a POI situation because the reason for the stoppage is not one of those listed in 4-36-1.

Mark Dexter Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:50pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Therefore, by the current wording of the NFHS rules, this play results in an AP throw-in from the nearest OOB spot to where the ball last contacted the floor. I'll state now that I believe that this is an absolutely horrible outcome, but it is the current application of the rules. In my opinion, any official who did it that way would need a police escort out of the gym, if the arrow happened to favor the defense. So what else can we do?

YOW!!!

What else can we do? How about we take a look at the definition of when a throw-in ends???

socalreff Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:51pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Yep, because under the current rules the OP is NOT a POI situation because the reason for the stoppage is not one of those listed in 4-36-1.

So what I'm hearing is that you're going to complete the throw-in for them and advance the ball?!?

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:51pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Where it last touched a player or the court, obviously means just that.

Sorry that you don't agree, but you are going to be in the minority on that one.

2 things:

1. Even though this is a debate between 2 people your interpretation is that one of us in in the minority. Is it possible to be promoted from King of Bullsh1t Interpretations to something higher? Emperor? Need to look into that.

2. If they meant it your way simply inserting the word "either" would have made it clear. Example: A1 is standing OOB when the ball bounces off his hands and lands OOB on the other sideline (let's assume A1 is Chuck). Where's the throw-in spot? Where it last touched the player or where it most recently touched either the player or the floor?

Dan_ref Wed Mar 21, 2007 07:52pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Let me connect the dots....
Would the throw-in spot be any different in the 2 scenarios? (Mine or the original)

Not following you at all my friend.

One whistle is for a foul.

The other is to fix a clock error.

Completely different scenarios.

jkjenning Wed Mar 21, 2007 11:45pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
The only way the new throw-in spot changes is if the previous throw-in is completed. There was no infraction that would place the ball at a new spot when the whistle blew.

For instance, if the ball continued rolling and went OOBs, we have a turnover and team B would return to the baseline for an inbounds... so why wouldn't it return to the baseline after the official's whistle for the clock correction?

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 12:03am

Quote:

Originally Posted by jkjenning
For instance, if the ball continued rolling and went OOBs, we have a turnover and team B would return to the baseline for an inbounds... so why wouldn't it return to the baseline after the official's whistle for the clock correction?

Because there are two completely different rules that would come into play. If the ball went OOB untouched, 9-2-2 is the governing rule and the penalty for section 2 on page 56 says that the throw-in goes back to the original spot. If the official sounds the whistle to stop the game for a clock problem, the we need to use the rule that governs that stoppage. That rule says to go to the location of the ball, so 4-3-3 must be consulted and that will determine the placement of the ensuing throw-in.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 12:07am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
2 things:

1. Even though this is a debate between 2 people your interpretation is that one of us in in the minority. Is it possible to be promoted from King of Bullsh1t Interpretations to something higher? Emperor? Need to look into that.

2. If they meant it your way simply inserting the word "either" would have made it clear. Example: A1 is standing OOB when the ball bounces off his hands and lands OOB on the other sideline (let's assume A1 is Chuck). Where's the throw-in spot? Where it last touched the player or where it most recently touched either the player or the floor?

1. Just because you can't handle being told that your interpretation is not correct is no reason to resort to name calling. I don't believe that I have ever attempted to degrade and name-call you. Be an adult, Dan.

2. I'm sorry that the diction of the NFHS rules committee isn't up to your standards. You'll have to take that up with them. I'm still convinced that my understanding of what their words mean is quite reasonable.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 12:10am

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
So what I'm hearing is that you're going to complete the throw-in for them and advance the ball?!?

Let me be clear: In the OP, I believe that the current NFHS rules are terrible and should be changed. I believe that the current NFHS rules call for the official to advance the ball for the team, if the AP arrow favors them. I won't do that. I will fudge this one and say that it falls under an interrupted game, then use 4-36 (POI).

In your example, with the double foul, the ball doesn't advance per the current rules because this situation is cleary covered by the POI definition and that rule says to resume with the throw-in or FT that the stoppage occurred during.

Jurassic Referee Thu Mar 22, 2007 01:03am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
1. Just because you can't handle being told that your interpretation is not correct is no reason to resort to name calling. Dan.

2. I'm sorry that the diction of the NFHS rules committee isn't up to your standards. You'll have to take that up with them. I'm still convinced that my understanding of what their words mean is quite reasonable.

1) Gee, you don't seem to be handling rejection very well either. Its kinda made you real indignant, hasn't it? You'll just have to learn to handle those trying times when you get something wrong(even though you'll never admit that you were actually wrong).

2) I get it. Your interpretation of a rule that everyone else has agreed has a gray area is the correct interpretation. And the NFHS rules committee agrees with your interpretation. Not that we'd ever doubt that, but could you come up with something that's maybe a little more <b>definitive</b> than your own personal <b>opinion</b>? Maybe a letter or e-mail from the FED rules committee saying never doubt NevadaRef?

NewNCref Thu Mar 22, 2007 01:14am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Let me be clear: In the OP, I believe that the current NFHS rules are terrible and should be changed.

I don't know about terrible, but I definitely think there needs to be clarification about this (I think a casebook play would be exactly what we need).

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I believe that the current NFHS rules call for the official to advance the ball for the team, if the AP arrow favors them.

Okay, I'm still with you.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I won't do that.

WOAH....you admit what the rules are regarding this, but refuse to enforce them

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I will fudge this one and say that it falls under an interrupted game, then use 4-36 (POI).

And of course, while we're not going to enforce the correct rule, let's improperly apply another


Your post is completely absurd. What if I said, "The penalty for slapping the backboard (while not attempting to block a shot) is a technical foul. I won't do that. I'll just call it basket interference"? That's absurd! While I may believe that's what the penalty should be, I don't do it.

Maybe we should just all ask Nevada what he thinks the proper rule for everything should be.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:35am

If you are going to get your old butt involved in a discussion between Dan and I, then the least that you could do is properly and fully quote me. Don't cut what I wrote without making note of that. Putting ellipsis is a proper indicator.

Furthermore, you could try to follow the point under debate.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
...
2) I get it. Your interpretation of a rule that everyone else has agreed has a gray area is the correct interpretation. ...

Nope, I was referring to the "player or the court" wording at the end of 4-3-3 that Dan and I have been in disagreement over, not that my opinion is definitive regarding any gray area involving how to properly handle a timing error of the type presented in the OP.

So if you can't follow the conversation, hang up the phone.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:45am

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref

And of course, while we're not going to enforce the correct rule, let's improperly apply another


Your post is completely absurd. What if I said, "The penalty for slapping the backboard (while not attempting to block a shot) is a technical foul. I won't do that. I'll just call it basket interference"? That's absurd! While I may believe that's what the penalty should be, I don't do it.

Maybe we should just all ask Nevada what he thinks the proper rule for everything should be.

Apples and Oranges, NC. In the timing situation, neither team has committed an infraction. In your slapping the backboard example someone has infringed the rules. I would properly punish that, but in the timing situation I am not advocating failing to properly punish a player or team by skipping any penalty given in the rules. I am advocating NOT screwing them over because of something totally unfair and beyond their control. Even JR wouldn't go to AP arrow in this situation, but if you wish to do so and take the police escort out of the gym, be my guest. I'm just not going down that path with you.

Jurassic Referee Thu Mar 22, 2007 06:07am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
If you are going to get your old butt involved in a discussion between Dan and I, then the least that you could do is properly and fully quote me.

My "old butt"? Gollygee, whatever happened to the guy that got his panties in a bunch about name calling and degrading? Tsk, tsk. Be an adult, Nevada.

I agree with Dan that you're the Emperor of Caca. Trying to weasel the rules around to say that an AP arrow would be the correct call is ludicrous, but typical of your mindset.

JoeTheRef Thu Mar 22, 2007 08:24am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Because there are two completely different rules that would come into play. If the ball went OOB untouched, 9-2-2 is the governing rule and the penalty for section 2 on page 56 says that the throw-in goes back to the original spot. If the official sounds the whistle to stop the game for a clock problem, the we need to use the rule that governs that stoppage. That rule says to go to the location of the ball, so 4-3-3 must be consulted and that will determine the placement of the ensuing throw-in.

I keep seeing your reference to 4-3-3. Do you not know that this rule is to set the direction of the INITIAL ARROW, that would be the setting the arrow at the beginning of the game or the beginning of OT. This has nothing to do with the OP. Furthermore, the original post states that after coming out of TO after a made basket, Team A rolls the ball down the court...... The official blew the whistle before the throw-in ENDED, the ball is dead, whether the whistle was inadvertent or to correct the clock, the throw-in after a made basket did not end, nor was there a violation on the throw-in team, so you give the ball back to the Team A, back at the endline (and he can run the endline), and let's play.

JoeTheRef Thu Mar 22, 2007 08:40am

I must be missing something, or not reading everything. The majority of us would put the time back on the clock and the ball back in play at the endline. To put the ball in play where the ball was, in my opinion wouldn't work for me, simply because the throw-in never ended, so how can I change the location of the throw-in? But to try and justify by any rule to give the ball back to Team B in this situation is absurd.

In the caseplay 7.5.4 sit. D.. Official inadverntely blows the whistle while Team A's successful try is airborne.. Ruling. Even though by rule there is no team control during this dead ball period, the ball would be given to TEam B for a throw-in anywhere along the endline. Team B would have clearly received the ball had the official not acidentally sound his/her whistle.

Yes, I know that caseplay is talking about an IW, but the intent of the ruling by the FED in that situation could and should be applied in this situation. So in the OP, Team A would not or could not lose possession because of the idiot timekeeper starting the clock when it shouldn't have started, period.

26 Year Gap Thu Mar 22, 2007 08:48am

I heard back from my interpreter and will post his response here. Some will agree and some will disagree. And, no, firing the clock operator on the spot was not part of the response.

interesting play and connects with the point I was attempting to make at the mid-season meetings about being aware of the clock in crucial situations...there are many different situations that occur and not a lot of guidance in the rule book, which then allows Rule 2-3 (Referee's Authority) to take over...that rule along with experience, rule knowledge and common sense will hopefully provide for a ruling that is FAIR...I would say in the situation presented, that the ball should be inbounded at the spot closest to where the ball was when the whistle was blown i.e. near the division line, and that the clock should be reset to the original time i.e. 32.3(I think it was)...

Dan_ref Thu Mar 22, 2007 08:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
I must be missing something, or not reading everything. The majority of us would put the time back on the clock and the ball back in play at the endline. To put the ball in play where the ball was, in my opinion wouldn't work for me, simply because the throw-in never ended, so how can I change the location of the throw-in? But to try and justify by any rule to give the ball back to Team B in this situation is absurd.

Yeah, most of us would kill the play, fix the clock & restart the throw-in. Simple enough, although it does get tricky if you kill the play after the touch but before team control.

Some of us would prefer to dream up alternate-universe interpretations and hand them down from the mountain top carved onto tablets. :shrug:

SoInZebra Thu Mar 22, 2007 09:00am

I didn't fire the time keeper......just made him buy a round after the game. Thanks all for your thoughts.

etruland Thu Mar 22, 2007 10:04am

Not an IW
 
That's not an IW. WE have a timing mistake. Since we must put time back on, put ball back to throw in spot. :cool:

NewNCref Thu Mar 22, 2007 11:15am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I am advocating NOT screwing them over because of something totally unfair and beyond their control.

Nevada, I'm not arguing about whether they're getting "screwed over", but if the rules say to do something, I feel like that's what needs to be done. Does it suck? Yeah, probably, but that's not my judgement to make.

I'm also not advocating going to the AP, because it's not an inadvertent whistle.

Scrapper1 Thu Mar 22, 2007 11:21am

Quote:

Originally Posted by etruland
That's not an IW. WE have a timing mistake. Since we must put time back on, put ball back to throw in spot. :cool:

Hey Earl. Welcome to the forum!!

I agree that it's technically not an inadvertent whistle. But why does putting time back on the clock mean that we must go back to the original throw-in spot? I don't get the connection between those two things.

socalreff Thu Mar 22, 2007 12:23pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Hey Earl. Welcome to the forum!!

I agree that it's technically not an inadvertent whistle. But why does putting time back on the clock mean that we must go back to the original throw-in spot? I don't get the connection between those two things.

Let me try to simplify this whole thing. This is an official's timeout. The official blew the whistle to make a correction. If a team calls a timeout before the throw-in is completed, where is the next throw-in? The ball has not yet achieved any status other than its original position.
On a throw-in, if the ball bounces in the frontcourt, has it attained front court status? No. A player in the backcourt may be the 1st to touch it after it touches the floor in the frontcourt.
The same applies to this situation.

Dan_ref Thu Mar 22, 2007 12:26pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
Let me try to simplify this whole thing. This is an official's timeout.

Officials don't get time outs.

"Official's timeout" is announcer-speak.

Mark Dexter Thu Mar 22, 2007 01:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by socalreff
On a throw-in, if the ball bounces in the frontcourt, has it attained front court status? No. A player in the backcourt may be the 1st to touch it after it touches the floor in the frontcourt.

Yes, it has attained front court status. Take another look at 4-4-2. The rules for backcourt violation and backcourt status are related, but there are key differences.

JoeTheRef Thu Mar 22, 2007 01:12pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mark Dexter
Yes, it has attained front court status. Take another look at 4-4-2. The rules for backcourt violation and backcourt status are related, but there are key differences.

Mark, I think he has it correct. If the ball and only the ball touches the front court, it does not attain front court status yet.

Adam Thu Mar 22, 2007 01:30pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
Mark, I think he has it correct. If the ball and only the ball touches the front court, it does not attain front court status yet.

Just because there's no team control doesn't mean it hasn't attained FC status.

Mark Dexter Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:26pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
Mark, I think he has it correct. If the ball and only the ball touches the front court, it does not attain front court status yet.

NFHS 4-4-2:
A ball which is in contact with a player or with the court is in the frontcourt if neither the ball nor the player is touching the backcourt.

Q.E.D.

Mark Dexter Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:28pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
Mark, I think he has it correct. If the ball and only the ball touches the front court, it does not attain front court status yet.

See also 9-9-2.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
I keep seeing your reference to 4-3-3. Do you not know that this rule is to set the direction of the INITIAL ARROW...

Sorry, it's a typo. I meant 4-4-3, which deals with BALL LOCATION. I've gone back and edited my previous posts to the correct number.



Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
The official blew the whistle before the throw-in ENDED, the ball is dead, whether the whistle was inadvertent or to correct the clock, the throw-in after a made basket did not end, nor was there a violation on the throw-in team, so you give the ball back to the Team A, back at the endline (and he can run the endline), and let's play.

Joe, what you are missing is that there is not a rule in the book which says to do what you seem to think is THE way to handle the situation.
Even though the stoppage occurred during a throw-in, the POI rule does not apply because the reason for the stoppage is NOT one of those listed in 4-36-1. We agree that this is not an accidental whistle, right?

It is unfortunate, but I believe that the rule which governs this play is 6-4-3e. That describes the conditions under which the ball became dead. That rule says to use the AP arrow at the location of the ball.

See the problem?

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:50pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by NewNCref
I'm also not advocating going to the AP, because it's not an inadvertent whistle.

I'm also maintaining that this is not an accidental whistle (the correct NFHS terminology), but that going to the AP is unfortunately correct because 6-4-3e describes the conditions under which the ball became dead.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 03:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap
I heard back from my interpreter and will post his response here. Some will agree and some will disagree. And, no, firing the clock operator on the spot was not part of the response.

interesting play and connects with the point I was attempting to make at the mid-season meetings about being aware of the clock in crucial situations...there are many different situations that occur and not a lot of guidance in the rule book, which then allows Rule 2-3 (Referee's Authority) to take over...that rule along with experience, rule knowledge and common sense will hopefully provide for a ruling that is FAIR...I would say in the situation presented, that the ball should be inbounded at the spot closest to where the ball was when the whistle was blown i.e. near the division line, and that the clock should be reset to the original time i.e. 32.3(I think it was)...

So you ask your rules interpreter for help and rather than do some bookwork and attempt cite an applicable rule for you, he tells you to fall back on 2-3 and advance the ball for the throwing team. :rolleyes:

I'm sure that JR will have some choice words for him about that decision.

OHBBREF Thu Mar 22, 2007 04:32pm

rule 5 section 10 art 2
 
With Due respect to rules interpreters and those who have posted thus far IMHO
This is NOT an INADVERTANT WHISTLE it IS a TIMERS MISTAKE that is why you are blowing the whistle so you can find what to do, But because there is a rule involved you can not no mater how badly covered use elasticity to fill in the gaps or your feelings or personal opinions.
I think this is how you have to go about resetting play.
1)
now if the ball was not touched
the clock is restet to 32.2
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the ball was touched and the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
no time ran off the clock since it was not touched

2)
if the ball was touched by the inbounding team
The clock is reset at something less than 32.2 (Ref knowledge)
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
and time came off the clock because it was touched

3)
if the ball was intercepted by the defending team then the whisle blows
The clock is reset at something less than 32.2
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
and time came off the clock because it was touched.

and in these resets there are no advantages gained because things are at best POI when the whistle blew.

Nevadaref Thu Mar 22, 2007 04:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF
With Due respect to rules interpreters and those who have posted thus far IMHO
This is NOT an INADVERTANT WHISTLE it IS a TIMERS MISTAKE that is why you are blowing the whistle ...


...things are at best POI when the whistle blew.

Please show me where in the rules it says to go to the POI when the whistle is sounded for a timer's mistake. Sorry, but that is not one of the reasons listed in 4-36-1. Care to try again?

26 Year Gap Thu Mar 22, 2007 05:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
So you ask your rules interpreter for help and rather than do some bookwork and attempt cite an applicable rule for you, he tells you to fall back on 2-3 and advance the ball for the throwing team. :rolleyes:

I'm sure that JR will have some choice words for him about that decision.

What did I post, Nevada? I said that I would copy and paste the original post and send it to my interpreter who is on the Fed rules committee. That is exactly what I did. Several on here who are far more knowledgeble than me had disagreements on what the solution was and many cited rules and cases or stated there was not enough clarity. But, no. Asking someone with more knowledge than me is a dumb thing to do according to Nevada. Much better to figure out something on my own and assume it is correct. I guess I should have just asked you since you are smarter than everyone else combined on this board.

Camron Rust Thu Mar 22, 2007 07:05pm

Relavant case that no one has mentioned....(I don't have my books with me so someone else can look up the reference).

Violation by B. Ref mistakenly gives ball to B for the throwin. The untouched ball is rolling down the court when the ref realizes the error and blows the whistle. The case play says that until the throwin is touched, the mistake can be corrected....that A will get the ball.

WHY? There is rules justification for it and the same rule applies here.

Because the ball became dead and a timeout, goal or infraction of the rules was involved (it was what dictated that there would be a throwin to begin with). And until that throwin ends or there is a violation or foul, team A has a throwin due them. A will continue to be due that throwin...and at the original spot since it is still part of the penalty for the infraction that had occured or part of the result of a team scoring a goal.

So, when the ball becomes dead as it is rolling down the floor on the throwin, the throwing team will get the ball at the original spot.

rainmaker Thu Mar 22, 2007 07:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mark Dexter
See also 9-9-2.

How can there be BC, when there's no team control? Which end is the backcourt when neither team has control?

OHBBREF Thu Mar 22, 2007 07:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Please show me where in the rules it says to go to the POI when the whistle is sounded for a timer's mistake. Sorry, but that is not one of the reasons listed in 4-36-1. Care to try again?

I didn't say the rule said return to POI - It doesn't but I think you are wrong what you are doing is is ignoring why you have blown the whistle -
you blew the whistle to correct a timers mistake under
under scoring and timing regulations - section 10 - article 2 (I believe do not have NFHS book with me)you stop the clock and then either reset or take time off the clock and give the ball back where it was.

Mark Dexter Thu Mar 22, 2007 08:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
How can there be BC, when there's no team control? Which end is the backcourt when neither team has control?

Juulie - I was using 9-9-2 to illustrate the fact that the ball doesn't need to be touched in FC/BC to attain such a status. That said, a TEAM has its own FC/BC established whether there is control or not (4-13).

JoeTheRef Thu Mar 22, 2007 09:01pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
I'm also maintaining that this is not an accidental whistle (the correct NFHS terminology), but that going to the AP is unfortunately correct because 6-4-3e describes the conditions under which the ball became dead.

After a made basket, you are going to give the ball back to Team B because the timer mistakenly stopped or started the clock? If the timer starts the clock, while Team A is about to inbound the ball (and still has the ball), after a made basket, and the referee blows the whistle to correct, what do you do now? There's still no team control during the throw-in (FED). Give it back Team B who just scored?? I DON'T THINK SO!!

JoeTheRef Thu Mar 22, 2007 09:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
After a made basket, you are going to give the ball back to Team B because the timer mistakenly stopped or started the clock? If the timer starts the clock, while Team A is about to inbound the ball (and still has the ball), after a made basket, and the referee blows the whistle to correct, what do you do now? There's still no team control during the throw-in (FED). Give it back Team B who just scored?? I DON'T THINK SO!!

And this post is under the assumption that Team B has the possession arrow.

Jurassic Referee Thu Mar 22, 2007 09:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
<font color = red>After a made basket, you are going to give the ball back to Team B because the timer mistakenly stopped or started the clock?</font> If the timer starts the clock, while Team A is about to inbound the ball (and still has the ball), after a made basket, and the referee blows the whistle to correct, what do you do now? There's still no team control during the throw-in (FED). Give it back Team B who just scored?? I DON'T THINK SO!!

Yes, he certainly is saying that. And he is also insisting that the rules say that you must do so.

Ludicrous, ain't it?

Dan_ref Thu Mar 22, 2007 09:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Yes, he certainly is saying that. And he is also insisting that the rules say that you must do so.

Ludicrous, ain't it?

The Emperor has spoken.

jkjenning Thu Mar 22, 2007 09:53pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF
1) now if the ball was not touched the clock is restet to 32.2 and the ball is inbounded where it was when the ball was touched and the whistle blew.

Was the ball touched in your example? Are you referencing the endline throw-in as where the ball was touched?

Nevadaref Fri Mar 23, 2007 02:42am

Quote:

Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
After a made basket, you are going to give the ball back to Team B because the timer mistakenly stopped or started the clock? If the timer starts the clock, while Team A is about to inbound the ball (and still has the ball), after a made basket, and the referee blows the whistle to correct, what do you do now? There's still no team control during the throw-in (FED). Give it back Team B who just scored?? I DON'T THINK SO!!

I don't think that is a good idea either, but that is what the current rules say to do. To say it again, I don't like it.
In fact, I think that your example is an excellent one, and I will likely use it to attempt to get the rules committee to alter 4-36-1. A stoppage to correct a timing error needs to be included in that list. That would fix things.

Unfortunately, the way things are now, neither you nor any other official can point to a rule other than 6-4-3e that covers the stoppage in this situation.

You have conveniently said that you don't think that using the AP arrow and possibly giving the ball back to Team B is right, but you have not cited a rule that says to do anything else. Please be specific, if you think that there is one.

Nevadaref Fri Mar 23, 2007 02:53am

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF
I didn't say the rule said return to POI -

Really? You wrote:

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF
...and in these resets there are no advantages gained because things are at best POI when the whistle blew.

So what are you saying is the proper way to restart the game?

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF
It doesn't but I think you are wrong what you are doing is is ignoring why you have blown the whistle -
you blew the whistle to correct a timers mistake under
under scoring and timing regulations - section 10 - article 2 (I believe do not have NFHS book with me)you stop the clock and then either reset or take time off the clock and give the ball back where it was.

I have never said that this was an accidental whistle. In fact, I have gone out of my way to say that it was not. You need to go back and reread my posts.
Now what I put in red certainly seems like you are applying the POI rule. What rule permits you to "give the ball back where it was"? You say to do this, but you never say why or what rules support you would have for doing so.

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF
I think this is how you have to go about resetting play.
1)
now if the ball was not touched
the clock is restet to 32.2
and the ball is inbounded where it was when the ball was touched and the whistle blew.

the ball is where it was when the whistle blew.
no time ran off the clock since it was not touched

Here you say to reset the clock because no one touched the ball, and that the ball is where it was when the whistle blew, but you never say what to do. Do you want to give someone a throw-in? Do you want to use the AP arrow? And where to do want to inbound the ball from--near the division line or back on the end line? You never specify. That is very confusing.

Nevadaref Fri Mar 23, 2007 02:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap
What did I post, Nevada? I said that I would copy and paste the original post and send it to my interpreter who is on the Fed rules committee. That is exactly what I did. Several on here who are far more knowledgeble than me had disagreements on what the solution was and many cited rules and cases or stated there was not enough clarity. But, no. Asking someone with more knowledge than me is a dumb thing to do according to Nevada. Much better to figure out something on my own and assume it is correct. I guess I should have just asked you since you are smarter than everyone else combined on this board.

My state rules guy is also on the NFHS rules committee just like yours. No big deal.
I never said that it was a poor idea for you to consult someone that you believe is more knowledgable for help. I did have an issue with this person that you went to not bothering to give you anything in the current rules that would cover the situation about which you inquired. Instead your rules person just said to use 2-3 and make up what to do. I don't believe that is helpful at all. You could have done that without consulting him. So my criticism was not of you, but of your state rules interpreter. If my interpreter were to write something to me that was as weak and unhelpful as yours did, I would criticize him too.


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