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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:31am
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Play Situation
I observed this play situation in a BV playoff game recently and would like your take on what you have:

A1 shoots misses a contested layup, the ball bounds up in the air in the cylinder. B1 and A2 each attempt to get to the ball, and in the process B1 grabs the ring, pulls it down slightly as he releases it and him momentum carries him down. The ball then fades outside the cylinder without being contacted by anyone. What do you have here?
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:41am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SMEngmann

A1 shoots misses a contested layup, the ball bounds up in the air in the cylinder. B1 and A2 each attempt to get to the ball, and in the process B1 grabs the ring, pulls it down slightly as he releases it and him momentum carries him down. The ball then fades outside the cylinder without being contacted by anyone. What do you have here?
Technical foul on B1 for grabbing the rim, if no one was under him. You can't have BI if the ring was grabbed while the ball was above it and ball was never touched while it was in the cylinder.
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:41am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Indianaref
Basket interference by B1. Count the basket.
The rules won't support that call.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:44am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Indianaref
Basket interference by B1. Count the basket.
I disagree.. If the ball is in the cylinder it can't be basket interference unless he touches the ball. If the ball is on the rim or in the basket it is basket interference if he touches any part of the basket to include the net.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:48am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Technical foul on B1 for grabbing the rim, if no one was under him. You can't have BI if the ring was grabbed while the ball was above it and ball was never touched while it was in the cylinder.
JR,

Does someone have to be under him to make the rim grab legal?

Mulk
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:51am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
JR,

Does someone have to be under him to make the rim grab legal?

Mulk
Ronnie, unless he grabbed the ring to prevent an injury, it should be a "T". that usually equates to someone being under the grabber.
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 07:51am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
JR,

Does someone have to be under him to make the rim grab legal?

Mulk
If it's the defensive player..... HELL YEAH!!
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:02am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
If it's the defensive player..... HELL YEAH!!
Why would it have to be the defensive player to be a factor in whether the call is made or not?
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:08am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Why would it have to be the defensive player to be a factor in whether the call is made or not?
It doesn't, BUT in this case B1 grabbed and held the rim and the defensive player has no business grabbing and holding onto the rim unless he's protecting himself.
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
It doesn't, BUT in this case B1 grabbed and held the rim and the defensive player has no business grabbing and holding onto the rim unless he's protecting himself.
Joe,

My point is that you can be preventing injury even if someone is NOT under you. It really has nothing to do with offense or defense.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:20am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
Joe,

My point is that you can be preventing injury even if someone is NOT under you. It really has nothing to do with offense or defense.
Mulk, I clearly understand that point. I guess if the offensive player can grab it to prevent injurying himself or anyone in the vicinity, usually because of momentum, then I guess the defensive player can do the same as well.
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  #12 (permalink)  
Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:26am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
It doesn't, BUT in this case B1 grabbed and held the rim and the defensive player has no business grabbing and holding onto the rim unless he's protecting himself.
Um, Joe, on a missed shot, there is no defensive player. Or offensive player either. You use A1 and B1 just to show that they're on opposite teams.
Last edited by Jurassic Referee; Mon Feb 19, 2007 at 08:28am.
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:35am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Um, Joe, on a missed shot, there is no defensive player. Or offensive player either. You use A1 and B1 just to show that they're on opposite teams.
Gotcha JR.... In the OP is it safe to assume that B1 is in his/hers backcourt, and the aforementioned RIM was not B1's offensive rim? I'm somewhat familiar with the A1/B1 concept. I think I saw that somewhere, but thanks for the reminder..
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:36am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JoeTheRef
I disagree.. If the ball is in the cylinder it can't be basket interference unless he touches the ball. If the ball is on the rim or in the basket it is basket interference if he touches any part of the basket to include the net.
Thanks Joe, I should have known this!
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Old Mon Feb 19, 2007, 08:38am
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I think Jurassic's point is that both players similarly have no business grabbing the rim on a rebound.
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