Out of Bounds on Whom??

[Scrapper1]

Is it possible that the new wording in "Penalty (Section 2)" only applies to 9-2-11? "Penalty (Section 1)" specifically says that it's for Art. 11. And the first sentence of "Penalty (Section 2)" is also obviously referring to Art. 11, since it mentions the "violation or technical foul". And then the next sentence says, "Following a violation. . ."

It sounds like they might have been only talking about Art. 11. In other words, "The ball becomes dead when a player reaches through the boundary during the throw-in, whether it is a technical foul or merely a violation. If it's simply a violation, then the ball is put back in play at the original throw-in spot." (If it's a technical, then obviously we have free throws and a midcourt throw-in.)

[Zoochy]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

Is it possible that the new wording in "Penalty (Section 2)" only applies to 9-2-11? "Penalty (Section 1)" specifically says that it's for Art. 11. And the first sentence of "Penalty (Section 2)" is also obviously referring to Art. 11, since it mentions the "violation or technical foul". And then the next sentence says, "Following a violation. . ."

It sounds like they might have been only talking about Art. 11. In other words, "The ball becomes dead when a player reaches through the boundary during the throw-in, whether it is a technical foul or merely a violation. If it's simply a violation, then the ball is put back in play at the original throw-in spot." (If it's a technical, then obviously we have free throws and a midcourt throw-in.)

I do not think so. Where is the throw-in for violating articles 1 thru 9. Ball goes back to the original spot.
The new question (it was askesd but not answered in a previous thread) is.. If Team A had the ability to run the baseline for the throw-in and Team B created the violation by being OOB while touching the throw-in then, does Team A retain the ability to run the baseline when the ball is brought back for the throw-in?