Out of Bounds on Whom??
 

Team A is in-bounding the ball at baseline of team B. Player 1 throws pass the length of the court and then some, 5 feet out of bounds on the opposite end line, where Team B player catches the pass out of bounds.
Question 1. Whos ball is it and Question 2, where is it inbounded from?

I believe Rule 9-2-10 will answer your question.
The answer may not be what you think.

Violation on B, throw-in is at original throw-in spot.

I think out of bounds by B-throw in from spot where B caught the ball

Agree with All Heart
 

I agree with you...out of bounds to Team A at same spot.

This was, I believe, an unannounced change within the last couple of years.

The ball is OOB on Team B.

The throw-in spot is where Team B touched the ball.

Not according to the new wording Tony! :D

http://forum.officiating.com/showthread.php?t=29479

If team B violates by touching the ball out of bounds, then we have a throw in by team A at original spot. The throw in would not be at the point of the violation under the wording change this year.

Actually, the wording change occurred in the 2004-05 Rules Book. That's two full seasons ago and we are just now beginning the third.

Well, the wording isn't new. The book says the same thing last year and the year before.

But no, I had not read it. If they're going to make a change, the least they can do is list it in the changes. That's pretty screwy.

EDIT: Or did they list it and I missed that too?

I agree 100%, and you didn't miss them listing it. Hence my rant in that other thread.

I'm still amazed that Zoochy finds these things! How does he do it?

Is it possible that the new wording in "Penalty (Section 2)" only applies to 9-2-11? "Penalty (Section 1)" specifically says that it's for Art. 11. And the first sentence of "Penalty (Section 2)" is also obviously referring to Art. 11, since it mentions the "violation or technical foul". And then the next sentence says, "Following a violation. . ."

It sounds like they might have been only talking about Art. 11. In other words, "The ball becomes dead when a player reaches through the boundary during the throw-in, whether it is a technical foul or merely a violation. If it's simply a violation, then the ball is put back in play at the original throw-in spot." (If it's a technical, then obviously we have free throws and a midcourt throw-in.)

I do not think so. Where is the throw-in for violating articles 1 thru 9. Ball goes back to the original spot.
The new question (it was askesd but not answered in a previous thread) is.. If Team A had the ability to run the baseline for the throw-in and Team B created the violation by being OOB while touching the throw-in then, does Team A retain the ability to run the baseline when the ball is brought back for the throw-in?:confused: