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-   -   Grasping rim then dunking (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/29484-grasping-rim-then-dunking.html)

Raymond Mon Nov 27, 2006 02:34pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bronco
I'm not familiar with the NCAA rulebook, and I was wondering if there is an indirect technical on a player in NCAA? Would the player who dunked the ball and got two Ts be disqualified?

Yes, there are indirect T's in NCAA. An example would be the one in the OP where the player smacked the backboard after dunking the ball.

BktBallRef Mon Nov 27, 2006 03:28pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
There is a similar ruling by the NFHS which says that only one T should be assessed. When I read this I thought, "What happened to the T for hanging on the rim?" Needless to say, I'm not fond of this ruling, but it is what it is.

So do you view these this as one single act or two separate acts that both require penalizing?

And for Bob and JR, just leave it alone and let's see where this goes! :)

Jurassic Referee Mon Nov 27, 2006 03:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

And for Bob and JR, just leave it alone and let's see where this goes! :)

:D <i></i>

All_Heart Mon Nov 27, 2006 05:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bronco
I'm not familiar with the NCAA rulebook, and I was wondering if there is an indirect technical on a player in NCAA? Would the player who dunked the ball and got two Ts be disqualified?

The player would not be disqualified. It would take a 3rd indirect (that falls under 10-3.8 thru 10-3.19) or a direct technical.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 07:52am

NV, you're always here when we don't want your input...where are you now? :D

Nevadaref Tue Nov 28, 2006 11:42am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
So do you view these this as one single act or two separate acts that both require penalizing?

And for Bob and JR, just leave it alone and let's see where this goes! :)

They are listed as two separate offenses in the rules book.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 02:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
They are listed as two separate offenses in the rules book.

Thank you.

New situation.

Team B has already received a delay of game warning. B1 fouls thrower A1. We all know that it is an intentional foul to foul a thrower. We also know that if a warning had not been given, you give a warning and assess a foul. In this situation, we now have B1 committing a second delay of game which is nornmally a team technical and we have an intentional foul. Do you penalize the breaking of the plane and the fouling of the thrower as two separate acts or just treat them as one?

BTW, I'm not setting you up. Some believe that these are two distinct issues and others believe they are penzlized as one act. What do you think?

Scrapper1 Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:07pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Team B has already received a delay of game warning. B1 fouls thrower A1. We all know that it is an intentional foul to foul a thrower. We also know that if a warning had not been given, you give a warning and assess a foul. In this situation, we now have B1 committing a second delay of game which is nornmally a team technical and we have an intentional foul. Do you penalize the breaking of the plane and the fouling of the thrower as two separate acts or just treat them as one?

From wikipedia.com:

Quote:

Occam's razor (also spelled Ockham's razor) is a principle attributed to the 14th-century English logician and Franciscan friar William of Ockham.

This is often paraphrased as "All things being equal, the simplest solution tends to be the best one." In other words, when multiple competing theories are equal in other respects, the principle recommends selecting the theory that introduces the fewest assumptions and postulates the fewest hypothetical entities.
Put me down for the intentional foul only.

Jurassic Referee Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:12pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Put me down for the intentional foul only.

You're wise beyond your years. You must be a Yankees fan.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
From wikipedia.com:
Occam's razor (also spelled Ockham's razor) is a principle attributed to the 14th-century English logician and Franciscan friar William of Ockham.

This is often paraphrased as "All things being equal, the simplest solution tends to be the best one." In other words, when multiple competing theories are equal in other respects, the principle recommends selecting the theory that introduces the fewest assumptions and postulates the fewest hypothetical entities.

What page do I find Ockham's razor in the rule book? :p

On what rule reference do you base your assumption and postulate? :eek:

Scrapper1 Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:44pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
What page do I find Ockham's razor in the rule book? :p

It's not, obviously. But unless I get something pretty explicit from the NFHS that says to call both, I think the competing solutions are equal. So I choose the simpler one.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:50pm

"...competing solutions are equal...?" :confused:

Without regard to what you think, can you find a rule/reference that supports not calling them both?

I can't.

Scrapper1 Tue Nov 28, 2006 04:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Without regard to what you think, can you find a rule/reference that supports not calling them both?

Nope. But I simply don't believe the intent of the rule is penalize twice for basically the same act. Yes, you could read the rules that way. I understand that. But unless I see a case play or clarification from the NFHS, I just don't think that's the way it's supposed to be called.

I realize that we call the intentional foul AND issue the warning if a defender contacts the inbounder before a delay warning has been given. But I don't think that's to penalize 2 acts; I think that's so that we have justification to call the T next time he breaks the plane without contacting anything. He doesn't get a free pass to jump across the plane next time, just because he whacked the inbounder this time.

Jurassic Referee Tue Nov 28, 2006 04:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

Without regard to what you think, can you find a rule/reference that supports not calling them both?

I can't.

I can. Rule 9-2PENALTY4. T'aint no mention of a technical foul anywhere in there that I can see. One act--->one penalty.

Still going around in circles, aren't we?

Nevadaref Tue Nov 28, 2006 05:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Thank you.

New situation.

Team B has already received a delay of game warning. B1 fouls thrower A1. We all know that it is an intentional foul to foul a thrower. We also know that if a warning had not been given, you give a warning and assess a foul. In this situation, we now have B1 committing a second delay of game which is nornmally a team technical and we have an intentional foul. Do you penalize the breaking of the plane and the fouling of the thrower as two separate acts or just treat them as one?

BTW, I'm not setting you up. Some believe that these are two distinct issues and others believe they are penzlized as one act. What do you think?

I saw the other thread on this and it made me think for a while. I happen to agree with you and think that the team should be punished for both acts that it committed. Perhaps that will worry you and make you change your mind! :eek:
Of course, I wouldn't be surprised if the NFHS issued a ruling with similar logic to the one above regarding dunking a dead ball and then grasping the ring in which they state that only the intentional foul shall be called.
In any event my personal opinion doesn't mean squat when put up against an official NFHS ruling.


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