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-   -   Grasping rim then dunking (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/29484-grasping-rim-then-dunking.html)

Raymond Wed Nov 15, 2006 02:54pm

Grasping rim then dunking
 
Last night (NCAA-M rules) I officiated a military intramural game in which I had to issue a technical for A1 slapping the backboard after dunking. This morning while reviewing Indirect Techincals Fouls I came across this in 10-3-13:
A.R. 201. A1 dunks and in so doing grasps the ring with a free hand: (a) before the ball leaves his or her other hand; or (b)... RULING: In (a), A1 shall be assessed with two indirect technical fouls, one for grasping the ring and the other for dunking a dead ball. In (a), no goal shall be scored. In (b)...
  • Has anyone here ever actually issued 2 indirect T's for the act described in A.R. 201?
  • Is there similar wording in the NFHS rulebook concerning the assessing of 2 technical fouls for this act?

Nevadaref Wed Nov 15, 2006 03:09pm

There is a similar ruling by the NFHS which says that only one T should be assessed. When I read this I thought, "What happened to the T for hanging on the rim?" Needless to say, I'm not fond of this ruling, but it is what it is.

2005-06 NFHS Basketball Rules Interpretations
SITUATION 7: Only a few seconds remain in the second quarter. Team A is advancing the ball from backcourt to frontcourt. A1 is driving toward his/her basket and is about to dunk the ball when the horn sounds to end the first half. Shortly after the horn sounds, A1 dunks the ball and hangs on to the rim. RULING: A1 is assessed a technical foul for dunking a dead ball. The foul is also charged indirectly to the head coach. The third quarter begins with Team B being awarded two free throws and the ball at the division line. The alternating-possession arrow is not affected and remains unchanged. (5-6-4; 10-3-4)

bob jenkins Wed Nov 15, 2006 03:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef
Last night (NCAA-M rules) I officiated a military intramural game in which I had to access a technical for A1 slapping the backboard after dunking. This morning while reviewing Indirect Techincals Fouls I came across this in 10-3-13:
  • Has anyone here ever actually accessed 2 indirect T's for the above act?

I think you'd have to issue three Ts. ;)

bob jenkins Wed Nov 15, 2006 03:14pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
There is a similar ruling by the NFHS which says that only one T should be assessed.

I was trying to find this, but failed. I did, however, come across new 10.3.4E, which could shed some light on our "when does intermission begin?" issue.

Jurassic Referee Wed Nov 15, 2006 03:15pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef
Last night (NCAA-M rules) I officiated a military intramural game in which I had to access a technical for A1 slapping the backboard after dunking. This morning while reviewing Indirect Techincals Fouls I came across this in 10-3-13:
  • Has anyone here ever actually accessed 2 indirect T's for the above act?
  • Is there similar wording in the NFHS rulebook concerning the assessing of 2 technical fouls for this act?

There's no similar case play in NFHS <i>per se</i>. You could possibly string two separate parts of R10-3-4 together and come up with the same call. Not sure that I'd personally recommend going after that one though. It seems like overkill to me.

26 Year Gap Wed Nov 15, 2006 06:53pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
There is a similar ruling by the NFHS which says that only one T should be assessed. When I read this I thought, "What happened to the T for hanging on the rim?" Needless to say, I'm not fond of this ruling, but it is what it is.

2005-06 NFHS Basketball Rules Interpretations
SITUATION 7: Only a few seconds remain in the second quarter. Team A is advancing the ball from backcourt to frontcourt. A1 is driving toward his/her basket and is about to dunk the ball when the horn sounds to end the first half. Shortly after the horn sounds, A1 dunks the ball and hangs on to the rim. RULING: A1 is assessed a technical foul for dunking a dead ball. The foul is also charged indirectly to the head coach. The third quarter begins with Team B being awarded two free throws and the ball at the division line. The alternating-possession arrow is not affected and remains unchanged. (5-6-4; 10-3-4)

Might be semantics, Nevada, but the play described by the OP has the guy grasping the rim, and [presumably with the other hand] then dunking. The casebook play has the grasp AFTER the dunk. Wouldn't [at least in NFHS] the grasp be cause for a dead ball on the whistle and the dunk of a dead ball result in two Ts?

Nevadaref Wed Nov 15, 2006 06:58pm

I don't think that the order matters. The NFHS rule is that grasping the ring at anytime during the jurisdiction of the officials when it is not to prevent injury is a technical foul.

Nevadaref Wed Nov 15, 2006 06:59pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
I was trying to find this, but failed. I did, however, come across new 10.3.4E, which could shed some light on our "when does intermission begin?" issue.

So could this:
2006-07 NFHS Basketball Rules Interpretations
SITUATION 4: The horn sounds to end the third quarter. As the teams are heading to their respective benches, team members A1 and B1 verbally taunt one another. RULING: Double technical foul charged to A1 and B1. During the intermission between quarters, all team members are bench personnel. Both head coaches are indirectly charged with technical fouls and lose their coaching box privileges. Play will resume at the point of interruption, which is an alternating-possession arrow throw-in to begin the fourth quarter. (4-34-2; 10-4-1c Penalty)

jritchie Thu Nov 16, 2006 11:45am

and if the ball is dunked and then the kid does a chin up and slaps the board after that...then you also have two T's, is the kid now ejected! Has anyone ever called Both of these??? i have called one for this action several times, but never both...although could have! :)

Nevadaref Sun Nov 26, 2006 06:25pm

And for anyone who didn't notice, Situation 7 from the 2005-06 Interps which I posted made it into the new case book as the play Bob cited, 10.3.4E.

Jurassic Referee Sun Nov 26, 2006 06:35pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
And for anyone who didn't notice, Situation 7 from the 2005-06 Interps which I posted made it into the new case book as the play Bob cited, 10.3.4E.

Yeah, I kinda noticed that you cited the exact same thing that Bob did, but over 4 days <b>later</b>.

Keep up the good work You've got a great future behind you.:D

Nevadaref Sun Nov 26, 2006 11:05pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Yeah, I kinda noticed that you cited the exact same thing that Bob did, but over 4 days later.

Keep up the good work You've got a great future behind you.:D

You are INCORRECT, oh great one! :D

Actually Bob and I cited the same ruling in the very same minute. Please take another look at the times of posts #2 and #4.
You confused that interp from 2005-06 which I cited therein with the one from 2006-07 that I cited in post #8. :p

IREFU2 Mon Nov 27, 2006 10:14am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef
Last night (NCAA-M rules) I officiated a military intramural game in which I had to issue a technical for A1 slapping the backboard after dunking. This morning while reviewing Indirect Techincals Fouls I came across this in 10-3-13:
A.R. 201. A1 dunks and in so doing grasps the ring with a free hand: (a) before the ball leaves his or her other hand; or (b)... RULING: In (a), A1 shall be assessed with two indirect technical fouls, one for grasping the ring and the other for dunking a dead ball. In (a), no goal shall be scored. In (b)...
  • Has anyone here ever actually issued 2 indirect T's for the act described in A.R. 201?
  • Is there similar wording in the NFHS rulebook concerning the assessing of 2 technical fouls for this act?

I think I that I have seen the two t senario before in a game and I dont remember where and when. But if it is warranted, then handle your business.

bronco Mon Nov 27, 2006 12:55pm

I'm not familiar with the NCAA rulebook, and I was wondering if there is an indirect technical on a player in NCAA? Would the player who dunked the ball and got two Ts be disqualified?

Raymond Mon Nov 27, 2006 02:33pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bronco
I'm not familiar with the NCAA rulebook, and I was wondering if there is an indirect technical on a player in NCAA? Would the player who dunked the ball and got two Ts be disqualified?

Yes, there are indirect T's in NCAA. An example would be the one in the OP where the player smack the backboard after dunking the ball.

Raymond Mon Nov 27, 2006 02:34pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bronco
I'm not familiar with the NCAA rulebook, and I was wondering if there is an indirect technical on a player in NCAA? Would the player who dunked the ball and got two Ts be disqualified?

Yes, there are indirect T's in NCAA. An example would be the one in the OP where the player smacked the backboard after dunking the ball.

BktBallRef Mon Nov 27, 2006 03:28pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
There is a similar ruling by the NFHS which says that only one T should be assessed. When I read this I thought, "What happened to the T for hanging on the rim?" Needless to say, I'm not fond of this ruling, but it is what it is.

So do you view these this as one single act or two separate acts that both require penalizing?

And for Bob and JR, just leave it alone and let's see where this goes! :)

Jurassic Referee Mon Nov 27, 2006 03:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

And for Bob and JR, just leave it alone and let's see where this goes! :)

:D <i></i>

All_Heart Mon Nov 27, 2006 05:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bronco
I'm not familiar with the NCAA rulebook, and I was wondering if there is an indirect technical on a player in NCAA? Would the player who dunked the ball and got two Ts be disqualified?

The player would not be disqualified. It would take a 3rd indirect (that falls under 10-3.8 thru 10-3.19) or a direct technical.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 07:52am

NV, you're always here when we don't want your input...where are you now? :D

Nevadaref Tue Nov 28, 2006 11:42am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
So do you view these this as one single act or two separate acts that both require penalizing?

And for Bob and JR, just leave it alone and let's see where this goes! :)

They are listed as two separate offenses in the rules book.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 02:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
They are listed as two separate offenses in the rules book.

Thank you.

New situation.

Team B has already received a delay of game warning. B1 fouls thrower A1. We all know that it is an intentional foul to foul a thrower. We also know that if a warning had not been given, you give a warning and assess a foul. In this situation, we now have B1 committing a second delay of game which is nornmally a team technical and we have an intentional foul. Do you penalize the breaking of the plane and the fouling of the thrower as two separate acts or just treat them as one?

BTW, I'm not setting you up. Some believe that these are two distinct issues and others believe they are penzlized as one act. What do you think?

Scrapper1 Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:07pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Team B has already received a delay of game warning. B1 fouls thrower A1. We all know that it is an intentional foul to foul a thrower. We also know that if a warning had not been given, you give a warning and assess a foul. In this situation, we now have B1 committing a second delay of game which is nornmally a team technical and we have an intentional foul. Do you penalize the breaking of the plane and the fouling of the thrower as two separate acts or just treat them as one?

From wikipedia.com:

Quote:

Occam's razor (also spelled Ockham's razor) is a principle attributed to the 14th-century English logician and Franciscan friar William of Ockham.

This is often paraphrased as "All things being equal, the simplest solution tends to be the best one." In other words, when multiple competing theories are equal in other respects, the principle recommends selecting the theory that introduces the fewest assumptions and postulates the fewest hypothetical entities.
Put me down for the intentional foul only.

Jurassic Referee Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:12pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Put me down for the intentional foul only.

You're wise beyond your years. You must be a Yankees fan.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
From wikipedia.com:
Occam's razor (also spelled Ockham's razor) is a principle attributed to the 14th-century English logician and Franciscan friar William of Ockham.

This is often paraphrased as "All things being equal, the simplest solution tends to be the best one." In other words, when multiple competing theories are equal in other respects, the principle recommends selecting the theory that introduces the fewest assumptions and postulates the fewest hypothetical entities.

What page do I find Ockham's razor in the rule book? :p

On what rule reference do you base your assumption and postulate? :eek:

Scrapper1 Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:44pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
What page do I find Ockham's razor in the rule book? :p

It's not, obviously. But unless I get something pretty explicit from the NFHS that says to call both, I think the competing solutions are equal. So I choose the simpler one.

BktBallRef Tue Nov 28, 2006 03:50pm

"...competing solutions are equal...?" :confused:

Without regard to what you think, can you find a rule/reference that supports not calling them both?

I can't.

Scrapper1 Tue Nov 28, 2006 04:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Without regard to what you think, can you find a rule/reference that supports not calling them both?

Nope. But I simply don't believe the intent of the rule is penalize twice for basically the same act. Yes, you could read the rules that way. I understand that. But unless I see a case play or clarification from the NFHS, I just don't think that's the way it's supposed to be called.

I realize that we call the intentional foul AND issue the warning if a defender contacts the inbounder before a delay warning has been given. But I don't think that's to penalize 2 acts; I think that's so that we have justification to call the T next time he breaks the plane without contacting anything. He doesn't get a free pass to jump across the plane next time, just because he whacked the inbounder this time.

Jurassic Referee Tue Nov 28, 2006 04:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

Without regard to what you think, can you find a rule/reference that supports not calling them both?

I can't.

I can. Rule 9-2PENALTY4. T'aint no mention of a technical foul anywhere in there that I can see. One act--->one penalty.

Still going around in circles, aren't we?

Nevadaref Tue Nov 28, 2006 05:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
Thank you.

New situation.

Team B has already received a delay of game warning. B1 fouls thrower A1. We all know that it is an intentional foul to foul a thrower. We also know that if a warning had not been given, you give a warning and assess a foul. In this situation, we now have B1 committing a second delay of game which is nornmally a team technical and we have an intentional foul. Do you penalize the breaking of the plane and the fouling of the thrower as two separate acts or just treat them as one?

BTW, I'm not setting you up. Some believe that these are two distinct issues and others believe they are penzlized as one act. What do you think?

I saw the other thread on this and it made me think for a while. I happen to agree with you and think that the team should be punished for both acts that it committed. Perhaps that will worry you and make you change your mind! :eek:
Of course, I wouldn't be surprised if the NFHS issued a ruling with similar logic to the one above regarding dunking a dead ball and then grasping the ring in which they state that only the intentional foul shall be called.
In any event my personal opinion doesn't mean squat when put up against an official NFHS ruling.

just another ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 12:59am

I may be wrong, (again) but I believe that there has been a similar discussion before, something to the effect: 9-2 Penalties 1. .......first violation ........shall result in a team warning......

Penalty: (Section 2) The ball becomes dead when the violation.....occurs.

Question: The ball became dead when the opponent penetrated the plane, so how can there be a foul?

Answer: (written in just another ref-eeze, may require translation) One infraction trumps the other. When two things happen at about the same time, or one thing happens that can be described in two different ways, (such as a flagrant/intentional foul....if it's flagrant, it matters not whether it was intentional) in most cases you go with the more serious penalty. I'm sure there are exceptions, and somebody will name one right away, but this is one of many small cornerstones in my slightly askew universe.

Jurassic Referee Wed Nov 29, 2006 01:53am

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
I may be wrong, (again) but I believe that there has been a similar discussion before, something to the effect: 9-2 Penalties 1. .......first violation ........shall result in a team warning......

Penalty: (Section 2) The ball becomes dead when the violation.....occurs.

Question: The ball became dead when the opponent penetrated the plane, so how can there be a foul?

Answer: (written in just another ref-eeze, may require translation) One infraction trumps the other.

Unfortunately, there's also a second answer as to how there can be a foul during a dead ball. Rule 4-19-1NOTE says that you <b>can</b> call an <b>intentional</b> personal foul for contact after the ball becomes dead. And that's basically what 9-2PENALTY4 is telling us to do.

just another ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 02:54am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref
I may be wrong, (again) but I believe that there has been a similar discussion before, something to the effect: 9-2 Penalties 1. .......first violation ........shall result in a team warning......

Penalty: (Section 2) The ball becomes dead when the violation.....occurs.

Question: The ball became dead when the opponent penetrated the plane, so how can there be a foul?

Answer: (written in just another ref-eeze, may require translation) One infraction trumps the other.
__________________________________________________ _____________


Unfortunately, there's also a second answer as to how there can be a foul during a dead ball. Rule 4-19-1NOTE says that you can call an intentional personal foul for contact after the ball becomes dead. And that's basically what 9-2PENALTY4 is telling us to do.
Unfortunately, there's also a second answer as to how there can be a foul during a dead ball. Rule 4-19-1NOTE says that you <b>can</b> call an <b>intentional</b> personal foul for contact after the ball becomes dead. And that's basically what 9-2PENALTY4 is telling us to do.

But this is a hypothetical situation. (rainmaker & I can't imagine a world without them) A1 has the ball OOB for a throw-in. B1 is on the line defending. He takes a swipe with the right hand, penetrating the plane. Not at the same time, but immediately afterward, he swipes with the left hand, penetrates the plane, and contacts A1's arm. In this case, the violation caused the ball to become dead, so there is no foul unless the contact itself was deemed worthy of an intentional or flagrant call.
If it all was done with a single swipe, hypothetically you still have two calls that could have been made. Let's say it was a reeeeeeally slow swipe. Hand penetrates the plane. Whistle blows. Violation. Warning to be recorded on Team B. Meanwhile hand has continued through the air and slaps A1's arm. Whistle is still blowing. Warning is instantly out the window (nobody knew it was there) because it was trumped by the foul.

I rest my case.:D

Nevadaref Wed Nov 29, 2006 05:31am

You have heard, "See the whole play," right? This is one of those cases. The defender is penalized for the entirety of his actions, not just the first infraction committed.

Counterexample: If defender B1 swings with his left hand in an attempt to block a shot, but commits a goaltending violation. We all know that the ball becomes dead at this point. However, while still in the air, he follows this by swinging his right hand in frustration and intentionally slaps the backboard. This action is clearly worthy of a technical foul. Can we agree that most quality officials are going to call both the violation and the technical foul? ;)

just another ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 09:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
Counterexample: If defender B1 swings with his left hand in an attempt to block a shot, but commits a goaltending violation. We all know that the ball becomes dead at this point. However, while still in the air, he follows this by swinging his right hand in frustration and intentionally slaps the backboard. This action is clearly worthy of a technical foul. Can we agree that most quality officials are going to call both the violation and the technical foul? ;)


The basis for this technical foul is?

Scrapper1 Wed Nov 29, 2006 09:46am

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
The basis for this technical foul is?

10-3-5b<font>

Dan_ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 09:58am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
You have heard, "See the whole play," right? This is one of those cases. The defender is penalized for the entirety of his actions, not just the first infraction committed.

Counterexample: If defender B1 swings with his left hand in an attempt to block a shot, but commits a goaltending violation. We all know that the ball becomes dead at this point. However, while still in the air, he follows this by swinging his right hand in frustration and intentionally slaps the backboard. This action is clearly worthy of a technical foul. Can we agree that most quality officials are going to call both the violation and the technical foul? ;)

Before we agree to anything let me get this straight -

B1 leaps, blocks a shot with his left hand, hears the whistle for GT, gets mad & slaps the backboard with his right hand. All without returning to earth.

Sounds like something you might see in a Bruce Lee movie.

M&M Guy Wed Nov 29, 2006 10:44am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Before we agree to anything let me get this straight -

B1 leaps, blocks a shot with his left hand, hears the whistle for GT, gets mad & slaps the backboard with his right hand. All without returning to earth.

Sounds like something you might see in a Bruce Lee movie.

Hang time?

Dan_ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 11:05am

Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy
Hang time?

Hmmm...you might have a point.

just another ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 11:42am

Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref
The basis for this technical foul is?


Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
10-3-5b<font>

10-3-5b: Intentionally slapping or striking the backboard......while a try or tap is in flight.....

The ball is dead in the situation. There is no longer a try in flight.

Scrapper1 Wed Nov 29, 2006 11:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
10-3-5b: Intentionally slapping or striking the backboard......while a try or tap is in flight.....

The ball is dead in the situation. There is no longer a try in flight.

Your edit distorts the rule, I think. It's illegal to intentionally slap or strike the backboard. It's also illegal to cause the ring to vibrate while the shot is in the air or in the cylinder or on the rim.

Jurassic Referee Wed Nov 29, 2006 12:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy
Hang time?

Nope. Bruce Lee was Chinese. It's <b>Hang Hi</b>.

just another ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 12:50pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scrapper1
Your edit distorts the rule, I think. It's illegal to intentionally slap or strike the backboard. It's also illegal to cause the ring to vibrate while the shot is in the air or in the cylinder or on the rim.


10-3-5b: Intentionally slapping or striking the backboard or causing the ring to vibrate while a try or tap is in flight or is touching the backboard or is in the basket or in the cylinder above the basket.

There's the complete rule. After the violation the ball is dead. The only way slapping the board is a technical is if you think it is an unacceptable display of temper/bad sportsmanship/whatever. I don't see it any different than slapping the wall or the floor. (I can do both of these. I'm kinda shaky on slapping the backboard.)

Jurassic Referee Wed Nov 29, 2006 12:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref
10-3-5b: Intentionally slapping or striking the backboard or causing the ring to vibrate while a try or tap is in flight or is touching the backboard or is in the basket or in the cylinder above the basket.

There's the complete rule. After the violation the ball is dead. The only way slapping the board is a technical is if you think it is an unacceptable display of temper/bad sportsmanship/whatever. I don't see it any different than slapping the wall or the floor. (I can do both of these. I'm kinda shaky on slapping the backboard.)

Good point.

Case book play 10.3.5 says that you <b>may</b> call the "T" if you felt that the backboard slap was intentional and it was done to draw attention or vent frustration. Judgment call iow.

Dan_ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 01:04pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Good point.

Case book play 10.3.5 says that you <b>may</b> call the "T" if you felt that the backboard slap was intentional and it was done to draw attention or vent frustration. Judgment call iow.

Judgement call you say???!

But Rod Serling (aka Nevadaref) told us this is a clear, by the book T that requires no judgement at all and MUST be called!

You're not saying he's wrong, are ya??

just another ref Wed Nov 29, 2006 02:29pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Judgement call you say???!

But Rod Serling (aka Nevadaref) told us this is a clear, by the book T that requires no judgement at all and MUST be called!

You're not saying he's wrong, are ya??

If he won't, (but we all know he would) I will. :D


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