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Did the defender reach and initiate the contact? Or did the dribbler extend the arm to ward off the defender? Once you answer that question, then you can ask whether the contact affected the play. If it did, then you have a foul on the guy who initiated the contact. That's my guess. I don't think the thought process is any different in the NBA.
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Hi Chuck, My point was that the ballhandler's arm is not supposed to have been there when the defender hacked it. Thus, the defender hacked an illegal action instead of being allowed to play through it; and so it seems, the defender should not be penalized since the ballhandler did something [illegal - protect the ball] to gain an advantage [ie., ward off the defender]. Wouldn't this "illegal arm" be a double jeopardy problem for the defense, because, in reality, the defense can't touch the illegal arm and the ballhandler is not automatically violating (contrary to definition) ? If there is no penalty for protecting the ball (per 4-24-7) then it is not illegal. No? mick |
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Seems like 4-24-7 doesn't make much sense, does it ? It's just one of those "So what?" rules. mick |
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Yeah, I guess so.
![]() I do, however, like 4-24-2, "It is legal use of the hands to reach...." I know it talks about slapping the hand when it's on the ball, but I may have to quote those 9 words to a coach some time when he's crying for me to call a "reach."
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