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I think I answered this right last night to one of our new guys but for some reason today, I was questioning myself and since I don't have my book here with me....
A is inbounding after a made basket. On the inbounds pass, B slaps the ball out of bounds. A loses the right to run the endline right? The throwin was completed because it was leagally touched inbounds. If B fouls during the throwin, A retains the right to run, correct? Thanks....
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"Some guys they just give up living, and start dying little by little, piece by piece. Some guys come home from work and wash-up, and they go Racing In The Street." - Springsteen, 1978 |
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yup. |
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If A1 inbounding holds the ball over the line and into the court, B1 ties it up (not a steal, not a foul - think jump ball). Has A1 put the ball in play and thus on the tie up he/she is standing out of bounds touching the ball? Is this a turnover or jumpball or something else?
I got off to a rocky start on this board but I love asking these questions about scenarios that rarely (or at least I hope) come up. |
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Now, during the next throw-in (let's say the AP was in Team B's direction), let's say Team B does the samething, breaks the plane and A3 grabs the ball and there's another held ball..... it's still Team B's ball.
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I am assuming you are talking about the throwin immediately after described scenario. Why is this ruled differently? has this really ever happened twice in a row? |
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Bookmarks |
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