I think I answered this right last night to one of our new guys but for some reason today, I was questioning myself and since I don't have my book here with me....

A is inbounding after a made basket. On the inbounds pass, B slaps the ball out of bounds. A loses the right to run the endline right? The throwin was completed because it was leagally touched inbounds.

If B fouls during the throwin, A retains the right to run, correct?

Thanks....

yup.

yup.

If A1 inbounding holds the ball over the line and into the court, B1 ties it up (not a steal, not a foul - think jump ball). Has A1 put the ball in play and thus on the tie up he/she is standing out of bounds touching the ball? Is this a turnover or jumpball or something else?

I got off to a rocky start on this board but I love asking these questions about scenarios that rarely (or at least I hope) come up.

Please elaborate, I am assuming you mean a foul prior to the ball being touched inbounds. Correct?

If A1 had broken the plane and it's tied up, it's a held ball. Go to AP.

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Now, during the next throw-in (let's say the AP was in Team B's direction), let's say Team B does the samething, breaks the plane and A3 grabs the ball and there's another held ball..... it's still Team B's ball.

Correct, A2 is in inbounding, B2 holds A1. Foul is called, A retains the right to run the baseline.

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why?

I am assuming you are talking about the throwin immediately after described scenario. Why is this ruled differently?

has this really ever happened twice in a row?

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I'm sure it has happened Coach, however I've never seen it happen. The reason is because the throw-in was not complete therefore the AP arrow has not changed yet. Therefore, if you have another held ball, it's still going to be Team B's.

Mostly Correct. That's the meaning of "during the throw-in" -- the throw-in ends when the ball is legally touched inbounds or out-of-bounds.