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Old Fri Oct 07, 2005, 01:30pm
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Location: Dallas, TX
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Quote:
Originally posted by Ref in PA
What if B1 simply knocks the ball directly oob? B1 violated. Does A1 retain an AP throw-in? No. The kicking provision (and foul provision) is only mentioned on a throw-in after an awarded basket. No where else is that provision explained. For us to extrapolate and say that applies to AP spot throw-ins is stretching the rules in my opinion.
The difference is, in your scenario, the ball touches a player to end the throw-in, and then a violation occurred. Two separate and distinct acts occurring at different times. In the original scenario, the violation and touching occur simultaneously. So which do you apply first? I don't think my logic is stretching the rules. When the rule states explicitly that a violation by the throwing team on an AP throw-in results in the loss of the arrow, applying the converse scenario seems to make sense to me. If the defense violates during the AP throw-in, there is no loss of the arrow.

Determining if the touch to end the throw-in occurred before the violation occurred - I think that's up for debate. I'm going with the violation on B during the AP throw-in and no loss of the arrow for A.
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