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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 02:42am
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NFHS RULES: Player recieves ball on free throw. Player B violates. Player A signals for Timeout. Official grants. Resuming Play is the delayed violation still in affect or does the timeout negate it? Does player A still get the extra throw from B's violation prior to time out? Can't figure this one out. Help. Thanks.
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 02:52am
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help

Anyone out there with some insight?
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 04:06am
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9.4.1.C.
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 09:45am
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I don't see this covered specifically in rules.

I say no violation in your scenario.

The delayed violation and signal assumes the shooter is making a try for the free throw and is continuing through that process.

The time-out breaks that string of proceedures.

Spirit of the rules you hold violations during the attempt. team chose not to attempt.

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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 09:53am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Ref Daddy

I don't see this covered specifically in rules.

I say no violation in your scenario.

The delayed violation and signal assumes the shooter is making a try for the free throw and is continuing through that process.

The time-out breaks that string of proceedures.

Spirit of the rules you hold violations during the attempt. team chose not to attempt.

Since there was no FT attempt then I would ignore the violation.

The player will still get his free throws etc.,

Thanks
David
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 09:54am
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This was discussed in a past post. I believe the violation would still be in effect based on that discussion. I'll try and find the thread unless someone else out there can find it first.



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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 10:10am
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For those of you confused by BZ's case play reference, he was almost right. Unfortunately, his dyslexia kicked in temporarily. What he meant was 9.1.4C. (You still have a delayed violation.)
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 10:14am
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I don't see how a TO would negate a violation or a foul once it has been committed.
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 10:45am
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Ok, so let me see if I understand this:

A receives ball for FT attmpt. prior to shooting B commits lane violation (steps into lane or whateve), A calls timeout before the attempt. What I am hearing is that A will get a free shot on first attempt and if missed would get a re-attempt. That sound about right here. I don't have my rulebook yet so I can't look it up.

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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 11:14am
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Quote:
Originally posted by mopar60
Ok, so let me see if I understand this:

A receives ball for FT attmpt. prior to shooting B commits lane violation (steps into lane or whateve), A calls timeout before the attempt. What I am hearing is that A will get a free shot on first attempt and if missed would get a re-attempt. That sound about right here. I don't have my rulebook yet so I can't look it up.

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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 11:20am
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9.1.4 SITUATION C: A1 is preparing to attempt a free throw. Prior to A1's release of the ball, B1 fakes causing A2 to enter the lane prematurely. A1 then requests and is granted a time-out. RULING: Upon resuming play, A1 is entitled to a free throw and the official shall use the proper signal indicating a violation by B1 prior to the granting of the time-out. If the free throw is successful, the violation is ignored, if unsuccessful a substitute throw is awarded.
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 11:23am
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Quote:
Originally posted by mopar60
I don't have my rulebook yet so I can't look it up.

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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 12:02pm
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I had asked about this a couple of weeks ago, because NCAA women's came out with this very interpretation. It didn't seem logical at first; in fact several people said they wouldn't call it that way because they thought the free throw attempt had ended with the timeout request. But I had a couple of people mention it to me this way - when B1 steps in, it's a violation, with a specific penalty, (albeit a delayed one), and A calling a timeout wouldn't wipe away that penalty, like WyMike said. The confusion seems to come in with the "delayed" part. But it's still a violation, with a specific penalty.
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 12:16pm
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You mean had my ex-wife called a TO right after I caught her, I wouldn't be divorced now???
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Old Fri Feb 11, 2005, 12:31pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by WyMike
You mean had my ex-wife called a TO right after I caught her, I wouldn't be divorced now???
I don't think that's a delayed violation!
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