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Tue Nov 25, 2003, 12:23pm
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This isn't a call where one official has authority over the other. Either official can make the call. When one official doesn't call it a violation, he has made a call, a judgment. If one official thinks it isn't a violation, why is it right for the other official to call it a violation when both have jurisdiction over the play?
If there's any question, the two should come together and get the call right. But the calling official should be the one to change the call, if need be. 
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