Four questions

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by deecee

The play says the player FUMBLES the ball. That word it not ambiguous at all. How did you get intentionally drops from FUMBLES?

I don't think he intended to say that. I believe he is saying that for it to be a travel, if you go by the rule, the player would have to intentionally release the ball.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

I don't think he intended to say that. I believe he is saying that for it to be a travel, if you go by the rule, the player would have to intentionally release the ball.

That's what he was saying, and I don't see how his point was at all ambiguous.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by BigCat

The play that Nevada cites, which has never made its way to a casebook, says the player "fumbles AND DROPS" the ball. The argument is that the player fumbled the ball, controlled it again AND dropped it. In order to "drop" something you have to have it. They could have simply said player "fumbles the ball and then goes and retrieves." They didn't. They said "and drops." Those 2 words mean something.

Frankly, as I said earlier, there isn't any logical reason to treat a fumble different when player goes up to shoot. I believe "accidental loss of player control" is what matters. If accident, let them retrieve it.

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

I don't think he intended to say that. I believe he is saying that for it to be a travel, if you go by the rule, the player would have to intentionally release the ball.

Originally Posted by Adam

That's what he was saying, and I don't see how his point was at all ambiguous.

Thank you gentlemen.