NBA- Magic vs Wizards (Video)

[mutantducky]

What do you got? Did the refs made a mistake? It was overturned, no basket. It seems clear the Wizard player hit the rim while the ball still had a chance to go in. But does the Magic player also touch the ball at about the same time?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EDe9GPhSrgE



https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZkZIRw7G0Us

[Raymond]

First violation kills the play, doesn't matter what happens after that. I don't see the rim touch, but I see yes two different players touch the ball

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[APG]

Rim was touched after the ball had fallen off the edge of the basket...thus ending the field goal attempt and thus no goaltending (or what we'd call basket interference). This was a correct overturn.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by APG

Rim was touched after the ball had fallen off the edge of the basket...thus ending the field goal attempt and thus no goaltending (or what we'd call basket interference). This was a correct overturn.

I think Orlando committed offensive goaltending first, which kills the play, then the Washington hand hits the rim.

[APG]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I Orlando committed offensive goaltending first, which kills the play, then the Washington hand hits the rim.

Orlando player touches the ball after it's fallen off the edge...which is legal under NBA rules.

[HokiePaul]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I think Orlando committed offensive goaltending first, which kills the play, then the Washington hand hits the rim.

That's what I thought ... but I don't know NBA rules.

Also, how does Orlando end up with the ball there? Wouldn't this be a jump ball? The whistle on Washington for goaltending was overturned and there was no team control when the whistle sounded. (I'm sure the officials did this right -- just curious the rule)

[mutantducky]

OK I get it now. It took a while! Edit- No I don't. The basket interference call is overturned(the wizard player hitting the rim) No basket for the Magic. The replay center rules that the Orlando player hits the ball, like a micro second before the Wizard players hits the rim. They say no offensive goaltending because the ball is going out but that is confusing to me because clearly the ball is still going to bounce on the rim, and if there is no offensive goaltending, then how does that negate the Wizard player hitting the rim? Does the NBA have a rule that says a defensive player can hit the rim, like the backboard slap, if it is part of the normal defensive/rebounding flow? Think about it. If the Magic player, Vucevic, does a tap and the ball is going to go in. According to the ruling, the replay center is saying that no offensive GT occurred so had Vucevic scored the basket it would have counted. But say on the tap, the ball was going to go in and the Wizard player hits the rim. Then shouldn't the basket count? The play should go to when the whistle should have occurred, which is the play in question. Not when oladipo is about to get the ball. So by that logic, if no offensive goaltending occurred, isn't there basket interference by the Wizards player or are they just ignoring that or maybe it is different for the NBA??

I just found this
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dQ9dO-gqHP4


"Following Wall’s go-ahead floater with 12.7 seconds to play, Orlando (0-1) had another nightmarish scenario unfold when Harris’ potential winning layup hung on the rim for what felt like an eternity, but it ultimately fell off following a flurry of activity in the lane.

Washington’s Marcin Gortat tried blocking Harris’ shot and instead smacked high right hand on the backboard, causing the rim to shake. Referees didn’t whistle Gortat for goaltending, but they did stop the action for a goaltending call when Orlando’s Nikola Vucevic and an unidentified Washington player tried tipping the miss in. However, Orlando’s ref-assisted basket that briefly gave it the lead was wiped off when replays showed no goaltending had occurred when the ball rolled outside of the rim’s cylinder.

``As you know this year, several plays are now reviewed and the ruling is made in the replay center,’’ referee Jason Phillips told a pool reporter. ``This (goal-tending) is one of those plays. So, they made the ruling and said that it was a legal touch.’’
Postgame Report: Magic vs. Wizards (10/28/15) | Orlando Magic

[APG]

Originally Posted by HokiePaul

That's what I thought ... but I don't know NBA rules.

Also, how does Orlando end up with the ball there? Wouldn't this be a jump ball? The whistle on Washington for goaltending was overturned and there was no team control when the whistle sounded. (I'm sure the officials did this right -- just curious the rule)

At the time of the whistle, Orlando had gained control of the ball...hence them retaining position of the ball after the overturn. If the whistle had come in while the ball was loose, play would resume w/a jump ball at halfcourt between any two players in the game at the time of the call.

NBA Case Book (2014-2015)

225. Player A1’s field goal attempt at 2:01 of the fourth period is goaltended by B5 at 2:00 and the official has doubt whether the ball had started is downward flight. What is the procedure?

Since the call was made in the last two minutes of the fourth period, the officials will use Instant Replay to determine if the goaltending call was correctly assessed or if there is clear and conclusive visual evidence that the ball was not on its downward flight. If the call is overturned, it will be treated as a suspension of play and a jump ball between any two players in the game will be held at center court if the ball was loose when the whistle was blown or returned to the team that had control of the ball when the whistle was sounded.

RULE 13 - SECTION I - a (13)

[Raymond]

So what was the ruling on the play itself

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[APG]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

So what was the ruling on the play itself

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Initial ruling was goaltending...which was overturned after going to replay.