I Missed This Question ....

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

This FED rule was changed a few years ago. It used to be that the batter was out. Now it's the runner who is out. Someone just forgto to change the answer key.

I think I have heard that this question has been acknowledged by FED (or some state(s) ) to be incorrect.

I don't remember, but does it matter how many outs are remaining?

I feel like I remember reading at some point that w/ two outs we get the batter, w/ < 2 out we get the runner.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

I don't remember, but does it matter how many outs are remaining?

I feel like I remember reading at some point that w/ two outs we get the batter, w/ < 2 out we get the runner.

Not on this play.

[Forest Ump]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

I feel like I remember reading at some point that w/ two outs we get the batter, w/ < 2 out we get the runner.

You're thinking of batters interference with a runner coming home.

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by Forest Ump

You're thinking of batters interference with a runner coming home.

Gotcha

[CT1]

R3 (the player who interfered) is out. Don't forget to add a strike to the count if there were less than 2 strikes already.

[dash_riprock]

If the ball was fair, I think the batter would get 1st.

[bwburke94]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

If the ball was fair, I think the batter would get 1st.

Correct, but it was a foul ball so it's irrelevant here.

[JJ]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

If the ball was fair, I think the batter would get 1st.

OK, another related question. What if that runner bumps the 3rd baseman and then he catches the pop foul anyway? Only one out, or two?

JJ

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by JJ

OK, another related question. What if that runner bumps the 3rd baseman and then he catches the pop foul anyway? Only one out, or two?

JJ

The ball is dead on the INT.