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Old Thu Aug 07, 2003, 05:52am
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Question

Situation: PU Only, 11/12 y/o game played under modified OBR. Top of the 6th, 2 outs, home team up 2-1, R1, R2 & R3. BR hits grounder to F3 who deflects it and it hits R1. PU rules runner out for being hit by batted ball, 3 outs, game over. Offensive manager is protesting for misapplication of 7.09(m). I've been led to believe that the umpire saw the ball hit F3. If that is true and I uphold the protest, in the restart would the situation be:

R1, R2 & R3
2 Outs
Score tied 2-2

Also, besides "Did you see the ball hit F3?" and "Did R1 INTENTIONALY deflect the ball?", any suggestion as to any questions I should ask the umpire? Should I interrogate the offensive & defensive managers?

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Old Thu Aug 07, 2003, 06:00am
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When a runner is hit by a batted ball that was deflected by a fielder, the runner cannot be held responsible. The PU should not have called the runner out in this situation.
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Old Thu Aug 07, 2003, 06:53am
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First thing to do is to make sure you are very up on the rule concerning a hit runner. You might then find that the important questions are, "Did the ball touch F1?" and "If the ball had not hit R1, would another fielder have had a chance to make an out?"

(Being that you seem not to have heard the umpire's version, I'm wondering if the protest was filed properly. I would insure that, too.)

That being said, if the protest is upheld, I believe that it is the protest committee's responsibility to put the game situation to where it should be had the improper rule application not occurred. In my mind, that would be just as you said, bases loaded, score tied and two outs.

In the event (very unlikely in my opinion) that two runs would have scored had the ball not hit R1, then the game would be over with a 3-2 victory.
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