balk vs illegal pitch [FED]

[David Emerling]

We just had the mandatory state meeting the other night. The big wig who usually makes the presentation, at one point, gave an example of a pitcher stumbling while making his delivery (with no runners on base) and not delivering the ball. He said, "That's nothin'!"

Most agreed and nodded. In fact, I've seen that many times and I have never made any call. Nobody ever complains.

But then a discussion arose that, in FED (unlike OBR), any pitching infraction that would have normally been ruled a balk had there been runners on base, should be penalized as a "ball".

For instance, let's say that the pitcher elects to pitch from the set position at all times. Should we require him to come to a discernible stop even when there are no runners on base? If so, what if he doesn't? Should we call a "ball" each time he fails to come to a discernible stop?

PLAY: Nobody on base. Game tied. Last inning. No outs. Full count on the batter. As the pitcher begins his wind-up he catches his spikes on the rubber, stumbles, and aborts his delivery. The coach from the team at-bat wants the umpire to call that "pitch" a ball. Obviously, it would be nice to get the lead-off man on base in such a close game. He insists that this is a rule issue and has nothing to do with judgment.

Just looking for opinions. Thanks!