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Old Sun Oct 07, 2012, 02:05pm
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Here is a question for debate.

The MLB comment states: The umpire must rule also that a ball is an infield fly, even if handled by an outfielder, if, in the umpire's judgment, the ball could have been as easily handled by an infielder. .

My question is, if the outfield is playing shallow and an outfielder makes a catch in a spot that 'in the umpires judgement' could have been easily handled by an infielder, does an infielder even have to make an attempt to catch the ball?
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