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I know that the answer is simple, but I can't seem to get a consensious:
Runner on second and third, outs don't matter. Grounder to short, fields clean and throws wide of first. F1 nocks the ball down, rolling (but not going to go out of play) 1st base coach (a) in box or (b) out of box kicks the ball out of play. Who advances/is called out? Basiclly, what does the umpire do? (FYI: when this actually happend, the umps missed the kick so played is as if the ball went in off the throw) |
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With coach's interference the ball is normally kept alive to allow the defense to make plays on other runners. Hope this helps Cheers
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Warren Willson |
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In this situation I don't see the coach interfering with the throw, the throw was wild as stated and hit the coach, not the coach hitting the ball. Because the ball went out of play, it should have been called dead, and runner at first is safe and remains at first. Other runners stay at base occupied at the time the ball went into dead ball territory. I also don't think the coach being in or out of the coach's box has any bearing on the play. The coach is required to vacate the box to avoid interfering with a fielder trying to make a play. Looking forward to replies! [Edited by thumpferee on Jul 2nd, 2003 at 05:36 AM]
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"A picture is worth a thousand words". |
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"In this situation I don't see the coach interfering with the throw, the throw was wild as stated and hit the coach, not the coach hitting the ball. "
He said the coach kicked the ball. Wouldn't that be the coach interfering? He didn't interfer with the throw, but it definitely sounds as if he interfered with the ball while it was rolling in the field of play. If he didn't kick it, I guess it shoulda read "The ball hit him in the foot". Anyway, I defer to you guys for the ruling on the play, I just wanted to state that it does sound as if the base coach interfered with the ball while it was still in play.
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"I got a fever, and the only prescription is....more cowbell." Christopher Walken, SNL |
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You need to re-examine the original post. In the case in point the coach actually KICKED the thrown ball out of play while it was rolling around on the ground before the fielder could recover from knocking it down. The scenario states that the ball would NOT have rolled out of play absent the coach's contacting the ball (not the ball contacting the coach). That certainly fits the definition of intentional interference, regardless of what the coach was thinking at the time - see OBR 3.15 Comment and Play for a comparative analysis and understanding of the concept of intentional interference by persons entitled to be on the playing field. OTOH you are correct that the coach's position relative to the coach's box at the time is irrelevant. Cheers
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Warren Willson |
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I took it as though the throw was wild, B1 safe at first on the bad throw, coach trying to avoid and kicks the ball UNINTENTIONALLY out of play as it is rolling away from F3. How can the perception that the coach interfered with the "thrown ball" while standing in foul territory(assuming that's where he was) on a throw by F6 to F3? Example: R1 on 1st and F1 attempts to pick off R1. Ball gets by F3, R1 takes a couple steps toward second then starts back to 1st. The throw by F3 to F1 at 1st hits the base coach. INTERFERENCE. RUNNER OUT. That's an example of a base coach interfering with a "thrown ball". In the case provided, I saw it as though the "thrown ball" hit the coach. Intentionally kicking the ball is another story. In that case I would agree with you. You are correct, that rule says the runner is out, Not a dead ball as I stated. BUT, I did say NOT QUOTING. When I said the ball is Dead, I was refering to the situation that interference was the call and by rule 2.0 (d)(e) On any interference the ball is dead. I have also checked your reference to 3.15. Again, Intentional comes into play. Where does it say the kick was INTENTIONAL in the original post. Maybe a better explaination of the play would help.
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"A picture is worth a thousand words". |
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If judged that the kick was unintentional while a coach was attempting to vacate the area needed by the player(s) to retrieve the ball, then there is no interferference. Since you state the ball was not going to DBT of its own impetus from the throw, you would award the runners 2 bases from base occupied at TOI. If the ball would have gone to DBT of its own impetus despite the kick, then the kick is a mere deflection that would result in a 2 base award from TOP. If the kick by the coach is judged as intentional, then you should kill the play and declare out the runner most likely to be played upon. In your scenario, that could either be the BR or perhaps R2 advancing to the plate. If in doubt as to which runner would have been played upon, I'd declare out the runner closest to the plate, and return any other runner(s) to base occupied at TOI. The location of the coach in or out of his box is of no relevance. Still, if in doubt as to whether the act is intentional or unintentional, I never provide the offending team the benefit of the doubt. Yet if the coach had proven to me through his efforts to avoid being hit that he was truly attempting to avoid the action, I'd consider the kick as unintentional. Just my opinion, Freix |
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Cheers [Edited by Warren Willson on Jul 2nd, 2003 at 07:57 PM]
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Warren Willson |
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Thanks for clarification on that. I just hadn't seen anywhere that a KICK was to be considered intentional under OBR, even when unintentional.
I simply can't see penalizing the offense on an errant throw by a fielder which is inadvertantly kicked. You are correct when you stated: "OBR 2.00(d) is about spectator interference. There is NO OBR 2.00 (e). The comment at the end of OBR 2.00 following point (d) would normally be referenced as OBR 2.00 Interference, Comment or OBR 2.00 Interference, End Note. That comment is a misleading statement because the ball is NOT automatically dead on any interference. Unintentional interference by persons entitled to be on the playing field, including coaches, is one specific exception". End Quote I was referencing my 2003 LL Rule Book, and under 2.00 (e) it is shown as an individual ruling. But under MLB OBR it is shown as (d) and shown as part of the spectator interference ruling. I have a question if I may which I posted on another thread. Is there a delayed dead ball in OBR? There is on obstruction 7.06 (b) but I saw no other situation in the rule book where the ball would be delayed dead on interference. I been calling under FED rules for 3 years and am now calling under LL rules. There are many differences and seem to get rules mixed up from time to time. That's my excuse and I'm sticking with it. Looking forward to your replies.
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"A picture is worth a thousand words". |
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Batter's interference (with a catcher making a play) Umpire's interference (ditto) Catcher's interference Some balks Ejections that happen while play is on-going |
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OTOH, if you would prefer you can go to the Official Baseball Rules Online at MLB.com, and check citations against the source before you reply. Just a helpful suggestion is all. As to your question, OBR has a delayed dead ball for:
Hope this helps Cheers [Edited by Warren Willson on Jul 3rd, 2003 at 07:25 AM]
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Warren Willson |
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I also have it in my mind that, unless I have missed an interpretation, Umpire's interference with a catcher's throw is also an immediate dead ball under OBR 2.00 Interference(c), or if it is interference with any other thrown ball it remains ALIVE AND IN PLAY under OBR 5.08. Am I in error on these two points? Cheers
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Warren Willson |
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2) If the catcher's throw doesn't retire the runner, time is called to enforce the umpire's interference. |
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