Fair/Foul down 1B line

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by nafxos

If I'm reading this right, that contradicts what I learned the other night, and what most people here are saying. The ball in the original post never passed between 1B and the RF foul pole. It hit foul halfway between home and first, and remained foul as it passed first base. But it was the BU's call.

If it made it to or past 1st base fair or foul (i.e. travelled at least 90 feet from home plate down right field line) and you had an umpire at "A" position, it WAS his call. If it did not make it to 1st base, it was HP's call.

[johnnyg08]

PU has fair foul up to the base. Don't over think it.

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

pu has fair foul up to the base. Don't over think it.

+1

[nafxos]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

PU has fair foul up to the base. Don't over think it.

Fair enough.

I think my problem is that I UNDER-thought it my first year as an umpire, and assumed that "up to the base" meant that if the ball hit foul before 1B it would be the PU's call when the ball eventually passed the base.

And since nobody corrected me until the other night, I'm guessing a lot of other umpires are thinking the same way.

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

PU has fair foul up to the base. Don't over think it.

That makes it sound like PU has the base. He does not. I prefer Evans' "base and beyond: base umpire"