batter accidentally kicks foul ball

[David Emerling]

The batter hits a slow roller toward 1st base. The ball is barely in foul territory when the batter accidentally kicks the ball while running to 1st. It is unclear whether the ball would have remained foul. Ruling? (both FED and OBR)

[rbmartin]

OBR 6.05(i) Batter is out when....After hitting or bunting a foul ball, he intentionally deflects the course of the ball in any manner while running to first base. The ball is dead and no runners may advance;...

FED 7-4-1(i) Batter is out when ... he intentionally deflects a foul ball which has a chance of becoming fair.

accidentlly = foul ball

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by rbmartin

OBR 6.05(i) Batter is out when....After hitting or bunting a foul ball, he intentionally deflects the course of the ball in any manner while running to first base. The ball is dead and no runners may advance;...

FED 7-4-1(i) Batter is out when ... he intentionally deflects a foul ball which has a chance of becoming fair.

accidentlly = foul ball

I think that we should start thanking members for looking up rules for posters who can't be bothered to even try.

Thank you rbmartin

[David Emerling]

The reason I asked the question has much more to do with the interpretation of "accidentally" and "intentionally". I'm perfectly aware of these rules as written.

I have heard it said that a "kick" (even if running and even if it seems accidental) is always interpreted as "intentional" for the purpose of such rules that require intent.

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

The reason I asked the question has much more to do with the interpretation of "accidentally" and "intentionally". I'm perfectly aware of these rules as written.

I have heard it said that a "kick" (even if running and even if it seems accidental) is always interpreted as "intentional" for the purpose of such rules that require intent.

I once kicked a chair leg while walking through the kitchen barefooted. It was not intentional. It still hurt though.

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

The reason I asked the question has much more to do with the interpretation of "accidentally" and "intentionally". I'm perfectly aware of these rules as written.

I have heard it said that a "kick" (even if running and even if it seems accidental) is always interpreted as "intentional" for the purpose of such rules that require intent.

Right, so you know the rule (I knew you did, by the way) and the rest is your judgement. In your opinion, did the batter "kick" the ball (intentional) or did his foot contact the ball while he was running (he made no odd movement, he just ran and contacted the ball - therefore, unintentional).

[JR12]

This is why some people are afraid to post

[jchamp]

I had this situation last night at a LL match:

A batter's swing hits the ball up and towards first base. It bounces two feet inside fair territory about 30 feet down first base line. The spin carries it sharply towards foul territory, where it deflected off the batter-runner's right shin, which was about even with the running lane line (at least two feet in foul territory).
I immediately call foul ball. Defense's coach wants me to call the batter out. I refuse stating contact was made in foul territory. I reset, and continue play with the foul ball call. My partner, who has played since his childhood, called for decades and is old as the mountains, showed no reservations about my call.
Do the other members here feel that the case described above is a foul ball, an out, or something else?

[nopachunts]

jchamp, If the batted ball was over foul territory when touched, then your call was correct.