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Immunity?
OP is different. Ball is fair, moving down 1st base line. Runner is running behind the slow roller and makes contact with the ball before the ball has passed a fielder. Foul within batter's box and out further up the baseline.
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SAump
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pretty simple answer here. If the batter meant to kick the ball he is out, if the umpire reads his mind and see that he did not mean to kick the ball it was purely an accidental kick, foul ball!
![]() I always heard no official can read minds, but the rule expect you to!
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When my time on earth is gone, and my activities here are passed, I want they bury me upside down, and my critics can kiss my azz! Bobby Knight |
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It does, but we read each others' minds all the time. When I say "nice call," you read my mind (judge my intent) to speak sincerely or sarcastically. Every word we speak requires interpretation, which is a way of reading minds. Happens all the time, every day, and it's no big deal.
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Cheers, mb |
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Peace
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Let us get into "Good Trouble." ----------------------------------------------------------- Charles Michael “Mick” Chambers (1947-2010) |
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I found situation #3 particularly interesting:
Baseball rules corner: here's a quiz to test your knowledge of the rulebook - Brief Article | Baseball Digest | Find Articles It says: 3. With Darin Erstad on second base for the Angels, a wild pitch eludes Toronto catcher Darrin Fletcher. The ball bounces toward the backstop and near the Blue Jays' ball boy. Trying to get out of the way, he accidentally kicks the ball and the runner takes an extra base to score. The umpire properly allows the play to stand. True or False?Although the interpretation does not involve a player, I'm wondering if the philosophy holds true to players. 3. False. Even though the interference was accidental, a "kick" is considered intentional and the extra-base advance is nullified. Erstad should be returned to third. (3.15).The reason I asked this question in the first place is because, somewhere in the recesses of my mind, I recall some interpretation like this - that if a player "kicks" a live ball, it is always considered intentional because it is too easy to mask an intentional kick with a seemingly "accidental", natural running motion. So, no matter how "accidental" it may have seemed - the fact of the matter is that runner kicked the ball as opposed to the ball simply hitting the runner. The runner actively did something. But, like I said, I'm not sure of this. You guys seem to think that, despite the runner "kicking" the ball, the umpire can still rule it as "accidental". OK - that seems reasonable enough. |
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Quote:
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25 |
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