Does the run score?

[UmpTTS43]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

First of all, Mark that would be R3 & R1 as we all despise the old FED runner identification. Please use the MLB and more accepted designation of R1=1st base, R2= 2nd base, R3= 3rd base.

That said, if F2 got the throw to F6 in time to tag R1 out, then there was no interference. The run scores.

I also think that F2 should have pumped to 2nd then nailed R3 coming into home.

True if INT was by the batter. We are talking about a retired batter, in which case you would be wrong. Again 7.09e

There is a distict difference between batter interference and interferece by a retired batter. Different rules, different interpretations. It really isn't that difficult.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by UmpTTS43

True if INT was by the batter. We are talking about a retired batter, in which case you would be wrong. Again 7.09e

There is a distict difference between batter interference and interferece by a retired batter. Different rules, different interpretations.

As there should be... in case one, ruling the batter out is an appropriate penalty... in case to, batter is already out and would be NO penalty.

It really isn't that difficult.

Truly. Truly stunned at the big names here not noticing the most important part of the equation.

[Umpmazza]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

As there should be... in case one, ruling the batter out is an appropriate penalty... in case to, batter is already out and would be NO penalty.
Truly. Truly stunned at the big names here not noticing the most important part of the equation.

on this play if the batter strikes out, and there is less than 2 outs... the runner is also out.... pretty simple here.

But there is a penalty for interference..

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Umpmazza

But there is a penalty for interference..

Of course there is. But calling the batter out (again) is no penalty. The penalty for a retired batter interfering is the runner being called out as well.