Balk or not?

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Jerry


FED or not . . . once the runner is returning to 2nd base, there's no longer a "fake". I still contend the throw needs to be made in an attempt to catch the runner. A throw to 3rd, while the runner is retreating to 2nd is no longer a "play" on the runner. That's the reason why it's perfectly legal to feint to 3rd without throwing. In the situation cited, F1 is simply being lazy . . . and should be penalized for it. His throw should have gone to 2nd base.

Jerry, I like your criteria for judging.
Still, if F1 initiates his commitment to 3B before runner stops movement toward 3B, then F1 is making a play there---regardless of whether R2 has decided to stop his advancement while F1's motion continues.

If in doubt, I'm siding with the pitcher and what he thought was occurring.
Odds are good that I, too, thought R2 was advancing.
F1 gains no advantage here by throwing to an unoccupied base, and my preference is to allow players to advance players---not umpires advance players. For me to call this action a balk I'm going to have to be damn certain that F1 had ample opportunity to know R2 was not advancing---whether F1 chose to use that opportunity or not.


Just my opinion,

Freix